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NISM Series XXI-B: Portfolio Managers Cert. Mock Test (Set 1)

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NISM Series XXI-B: Portfolio Managers Cert. Mock Test (Set 1)

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1.

Find the coupon yield of a bond with a Rs. 14 coupon payment, Rs. 100 face value, and a market price of Rs. 108.

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2. Ms. Harshita thinks that something will decrease in value because she took a ‘Put Option’ position.

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3. What does the secondary market do from the options below?

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4.

Figure out which of these things is a major problem when making a personalized benchmark.

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5.

The reward for delaying using or enjoying something is called ______.

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6.

The present value is determined by reducing the value of each cash flow using a rate called _______.

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7.

The residential status of a Hindu undivided family is determined by its ___________.

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8. Which of these aspects is excluded from the agreement between the portfolio manager and the client?

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9.

Market Risk is the risk in stock investments that comes from _____________.

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10.

Find the statement about bonds that is TRUE.

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11.

What is the role of Buy-Side Analysts?

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12.

The portfolio manager cannot use borrowed money against clients’ portfolios for investing in derivatives.

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13. Which of the following statements are correct regarding a customized benchmark?

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14.

The straight-arrow investors imply a group that is open to being exposed to _________

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15.

What is a requirement for obtaining the certificate of registration under Portfolio Managers Regulations 2020?

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16. If you buy an option, the most you can lose is the amount of money you paid for it.

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17.

If the ___________ goes up, the factor used to figure out the current value of future cash flows also goes up.

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18.

What among the following is seen as a goal for making investments?

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19.

It is correct that the ‘long term correlation pattern between two asset classes does not change over times’?

A. Yes, the statement is correct as their cashflow patterns do not change

B. No, the statement is incorrect as the macroeconomic factors and investor preference change

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20.

What details about the portfolio are typically provided in the fund factsheet among the following options?

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21.

The Sharpe ratio is handy for assessing the performance of ______.

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22.

In pool execution, the allocation occurs automatically because the trade is in an individual’s name.

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23.

What kind of investment goal should an investor aim for during the Consolidation phase?

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24.

What does the term ‘Up front’ signify in the context of PMS (Portfolio Management Services) regulations?

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25.

According to the rules of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002, all cash transactions exceeding _________ or its equivalent in foreign currency must be documented.

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26. Which of the following factors is not taken into account when assessing a country’s risk?

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27.

Point out which of the following is NOT an advantage of investing in a Closed-Ended Mutual Fund.

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28.

FAMA suggested three forms of market efficiency. Which one is NOT among these forms?

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29.

A monthly fact sheet published by the Asset Management Company (AMC) of a mutual fund is _________ .

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30.

Choose the correct statement regarding Efficient Markets:

A. A portfolio manager can generate positive Beta as the markets are INEFFICIENT.

B. A portfolio manager can generate positive Alpha as the markets are EFFICIENT.

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31.

What is the expected return of the three stock portfolio described below?

Stock A – Weight : 25% , Expected Return : 12%

Stock B – Weight : 50% , Expected Return : 10%

Stock C – Weight : 25% , Expected Return : 16%

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32. A completely diversified portfolio would have a correlation with the market portfolio that is _______________.

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33.

The following schemes exhibit the characteristics of:

  • Continuous sale and purchase of units at NAV or NAV-related prices.
  • Investors can enter and exit the scheme at any time during the fund’s existence.
  • The scheme does not have a specific time frame.

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34. In Enhanced Indexing, the factor ‘Value’ can be measured by _____________.

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35.

In a Callable bond, the _____________ has the right to prepay the bond on specified dates before maturity.

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36. Securities with maturities greater than one year are referred to as ______________.

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37.

In which asset class can one find categories like Small Cap, Large Cap, and Mid Cap?

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38.

Which of these is NOT included in the Investment Policy Statement?

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39.

A ________________ is a trust that pools the savings of a number of investors who share a common financial goal

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40.

The PMS shall disclose the audit observations of the preceding financial __________ to its clients.

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41. The yield to maturity of a bond is equal to its coupon yield when the market price of the bond is __________.

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42.

The full name of GIPS is ____________.

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43. The profits from selling securities in the invested company can be categorized based on ______.

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44. The SEBI Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations prohibit a person to, directly or indirectly _________ securities in a fraudulent manner.

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45. _____________ portfolio manager manages the funds in accordance with the directions of the client.

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46. The feature that allows the issuing firms to retire the bonds before the maturity by paying a prescribed price is called ____________.

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47. The treynor ratio uses ___________ of return as the measure of risk.

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48. Clause 12(B) of Schedule III of SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations relate to ____________.

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49. Debts funds have ____________.

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50.

Non-market risks are risks that do not arise from overall market conditions but are instead attributed to the unique risks associated with the investee company.

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