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NISM Series XXI-B: Portfolio Managers Cert. 'Last Day Revision' Test 1

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NISM Series XXI -B: Portfolio Managers Certifications ‘Last Day Revision’ Test 1

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1.

A Portfolio Manager might not give certain information to SEBI, ____________.

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2.

__________ is a way of counting days in the global Fixed Income markets.

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3.

An investor put Rs. 100 lakhs in an equity investment portfolio. The manager invested Rs. 75 lakhs in stocks, and Rs. 25 lakhs are in liquid funds. The equity part earned Rs. 7.5 lakhs, and the liquid fund had a 4% return. What is the ROI after considering the cash component?

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4. _______________ represent ownership in a company that gives its holders the right to share in its profits and vote on the company’s matters.

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5.

Identify the correct statement regarding ‘Open Interest’.

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6.

If a Portfolio Manager thinks the stock market is too expensive and might soon go down, what should he do?

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7.

______ is a deal made on a structured exchange to purchase or sell a set quantity of a commodity on a future date at a predetermined price.

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8.

Determination of NAV should be done regularly.

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9.

Examples of Category I AIFs include _________.

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10. Investment Managers can charge an Incentive Fee which is a share in ___ earned by the Fund, in excess of the Hurdle Rate set in the PPM.

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11.

The distributors should be careful in verifying investor documents and conducting _______ of investors during the KYC process.

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12.

_________ is/are advantages of alternative investments.

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13.

If the IPO includes a fresh issue of equity shares, and most of the proceeds from this new issue are intended for capital expenditure, then the lock-in period for the minimum promoter contribution shall be ________.

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14. The Distributors shall not market or sell products of a Category III AIF, wherein they have a potential conflict of interest with such fund, investment manager, employees of the investment manager, sponsor, trustee or a third-party service provider engaged by such fund. State whether true or false.

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15.

_________ responsibilities include overseeing and actively interacting with investee companies on aspects like financial performance, operational risk, strategy, corporate governance, board structure, remuneration, and significant ESG opportunities or risks.

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16. At _________ level When investors or unit holders need to subscribe to the corpus of the Category III AIF, it is imperative to perform due diligence on the operational risks, market risks, regulatory and compliance risks, strategy risk and reputational risk faced by such funds.

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17. VAR has a number of limitations. State Whether true or false.

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18.

The Fund’s liabilities include the __________.

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19.

The _______ should regularly review the policies and procedures of the Category III AIF, along with their implementation.

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20.

__________ is one of the most commonly used measures to assess the historical risk of the fund by utilizing past returns.

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21.

Investment managers of open-ended Category III AIFs should make sure there is enough money in the fund to cover possible requests from investors who want to cash out.

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22.

The arrangement and organization of the fund, both in terms of its structure and format, are crucial factors influencing investors’ decisions in a Category III AIF.

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23.

The ________ is the greater of the price investors paid for units issued to a specific group or the highest Net Asset Value (NAV) reached at the close of any prior financial years.

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24.

True or False: A financial institution that doesn’t report information is obligated to register with the IRS and disclose financial accounts.

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25.

The maximum limit for the surcharge on dividends earned by non-corporate FPIs is _________.

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26.

Category III AIFs must pay income tax on the money they make from selling securities.

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27. Investment Managers can also use a GARP ___, which combines the tenets of Value Investing and Growth Investing, while making stock selection.

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28.

If the price of the equity share decreases, the fund will gain from its short position and still receive fixed income, such as coupons on the convertible security. True or false?

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29. Employees who do not respect the Distributor’s Confidentiality Policy should be held liable for disciplinary action. The employees should not ___.

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30. Identification of ____ is imperative for the fund, to establish the natural person who ultimately owns or controls the institution which is investing in the Category III AIF.

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31.

A trust is considered a _________ when the beneficiaries and their beneficial interests are always identifiable based on the terms of the trust document throughout its existence.

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32.

Closed-ended funds in Category III AIFs have fewer ways for investors to take their money out, compared to _________.

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33.

_________ is calculated for investors holding a series of units to disclose the value of assets assigned per unit, minus the allocated liabilities and expenses, as of a specific Valuation Day.

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34.

When ___________, the trust is regarded as an ‘association of persons,’ and tax is imposed on the entire income of the trust at the highest marginal rate.

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35.

Is it accurate to say that for a corporate entity, the net worth is at least Rs. 50 crore? (True/False)

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36.

__________ is a broad term used to assess corporate behavior, often interchangeable with sustainable, responsible, impact, or ethical investment.

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37. ____________ funds that seek later stage investment opportunities do not use any leverage at fund level or indulge in complex trading operations.

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38.

The ___________ Agreement documents the terms under which an investor takes part in a fund.

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39.

_________ indicates the fund’s volatility concerning the applicable benchmark.

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40.

The _________ is given by SEBI for the particular AIF category applied for by the applicant.

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41.

Distressed debt financing via private debt funds is gaining popularity in India, involving refinancing arrangements with banks and insolvency resolution schemes under the _________.

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42.

A _________ aims to achieve absolute returns for investors by either taking a net long position or a net short position in selected stocks or a broad-based market index.

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43.

_______ can also serve for comparing the returns generated by the Category III AIF with the returns from other similar funds.

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44.

A shift in the Option _________ signals a modification in the likelihood of the option being profitable or in the money at the time of expiration.

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45.

For total income surpassing Rs. 5 crore, the Surcharge Rate is 37%. (True/False)

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46.

Category III AIFs are created to generate _________ by employing diverse investment strategies across various asset classes.

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47.

_______ is in charge of supervising functions such as issuing new classes of units, transferring units, managing full and partial redemption calls, and handling the payment of exit loads, expenses, and fees by the selling unit holder.

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48.

__________ is typically carried out based on the capital call schedule that has been mutually agreed upon with the investors in the Contribution Agreement.

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49. A securitization company floated by a bank is not an AIF under the SEBI (AIF) Regulations 2012. State whether True or False.

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50.

A Category III AIF will be obligated to pay tax according to the provisions of Section 112A, provided the fund has paid the applicable _______ on the purchase and sale of equity shares.

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51.

_______ charged by the Fund primarily includes Management Fees and Performance Fees.

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52.

True or False: Accredited Investors putting money into the “Large Value Fund for Accredited Investors” or any Category III AIF specifically created for them with regulatory concessions cannot withdraw their consent.

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53.

The percentage of ownership in the Category III AIF will be calculated based on the yearly average of the monthly averages of the _______ of the Fund.

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54.

True or False: Category III AIFs may be considered connected persons according to SEBI Regulations. Consequently, they are allowed to share or provide access to unpublished price-sensitive information only for business purposes, performing duties, or fulfilling legal obligations.

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55.

Using a _______ entity as a legal structure is unlikely to be permissible when applying for registration as a Category III AIF under the SEBI Regulations.

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56.

A _________ is a Trust that the person who created it (Settlor) can cancel whenever they want, either at their discretion or with the agreement of the beneficiaries.

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57.

True or False: Investment managers generally prefer to include a catch-up clause in the Contribution Agreement, and they often opt for a high catch-up rate.

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58.

Investment Managers are allowed to invest a maximum of ________ of the investable funds in one investee company, either directly or through investment in units of other Alternative Investment Funds.

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59.

The _________ Fund has an arrangement for co-investment with the Onshore Fund. Additionally, the Offshore investment manager has the option to enter into an Investment Advisory Arrangement with the Domestic Investment Manager.

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60.

________ is a government-appointed regulatory body responsible for overseeing and regulating the Indian Capital Markets.

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61.

Surcharge on Dividend Income will be 25% as the income of Fund TI, excluding Capital Gains under sections 112A and 111A, is above Rs.2 crore and less than _______.

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62.

The _________ of the Fund is calculated by combining the exposure in all long positions and the exposure in short positions.

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63.

The category of Alternative Investment Funds allowed to engage in leverage positions through Futures and Options (F&O) contracts, structured products, margin trading, and arbitrage strategies is known as ___________.

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64.

___________ serve as vital support functions for Investment Managers.

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65.

The _________ appoints the Trustee by signing the Trust Deed and the Investment Manager by signing the Investment Management Agreement to be part of the Category III AIF.

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66.

The eligibility criteria for accreditation is _________.

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67.

The primary sources of income for unit holders in a Category III AIF include _________.

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68.

__________ is the rate of return at which the present value of cash outflows for investors equals the present value of inflows.

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69. _________ type of funds invest in start-ups, early-stage ventures, social ventures, SMEs, infrastructure, or other sectors that the government and regulators view as socially or economically desirable.

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70. _________ reviews the appointment of the trustee at the time of registration of the AIF and subsequent changes need to be notified and approved by SEBI.

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71.

For joint investors in a fund, these additional conditions apply:

(i) If joint holders are parent(s) and child(ren), at least one person should independently meet the eligibility criteria for accreditation.

(ii) For foreign investors seeking accreditation, eligibility should be determined based on the rupee equivalent of their income and/or net worth, as applicable.

(iii) If joint holders are spouses, their combined income/net worth should meet the eligibility criteria for accreditation.

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72.

The schedule should specify the initial drawdown amount and the subsequent drawdown amounts, along with their timings, during the _______ period. This may include a fixed periodic drawdown.

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73.

__________ of the following securities would be least likely to be valued at Fair Market Value by a Category III AIF.

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74.

__________ is also applicable to services provided by external service providers, including Fund Administrators, Registrars, Custodians, Auditors, Brokers, Investment Advisors, and other third-party professional experts.

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75. Category II AIF, Act with required skill, care and diligence in the conduct of business as a Distributor. State whether true or false.

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76. ___________ investors and Institutional Investors diversify their portfolio to mitigate concentration risk on investing in only one asset class.

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77. Investors willing to invest in Category III AIFs must be aware of such risks and accordingly be capable to climb the _________, in search for superior returns.

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78. _________ the risk of potential fraudulent activities by third-party service providers, such as data theft, misuse of confidential data and sharing such data without seeking consent.

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79.

The ________ calculation is separate from the fund management function and is disclosed to investors on a quarterly basis for close-ended funds and on a monthly basis for open-ended funds.

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80.

________ is rapidly becoming a prominent investment approach in the corporate investment world, particularly in the domain of alternative investing.

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81.

A Category III AIF cannot borrow more than twice its fund’s value.

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82.

A _________ cannot ask investors to pay upfront fees, like Registration Fees or Subscription Fees, directly or indirectly.

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83.

Model Code of Conduct for Category III AIF Distributors requires disclosing all important information, including Hurdle Rate, Management Fees, Additional Returns, and Catch-up provisions, if any. It also includes detailing expenses charged to the Fund and expenses to be covered by the _______.

84 / 100

84.

The __________ process is essential for both the Investment Manager and investors to figure out the appropriate amount of Incentive Fees to be paid on a specific Valuation Day.

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85.

Any profits from these transactions will be considered as ‘Profits and Gains from Business and Profession,’ and the fund is responsible for paying tax on such income at the Maximum Marginal Rate of Tax, which is _________.

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86.

The assets of the Fund include the ________.

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87.

Alternative investment is described as an investment that doesn’t fit into one of the traditional investment categories.

88 / 100

88.

Entities other than ________ are unlikely to serve as Service Providers for a Category III AIF.

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89.

Pre-Commitment Services are appropriate for the following activities:
(i) Creating Pitch Books and Distribution Kits
(ii) Assisting in Fund Due Diligence by investors
(iii) Encrypting electronic information and securing databases
(iv) Storing and securing paper documents.

90 / 100

90.

The _________ instruments are currently classified as non-debt instruments.

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91.

The _________ must obtain an auditor’s report annually, take action, and ensure that periodic reports are filed on behalf of the AIF with SEBI.

92 / 100

92.

The worth of _______ in any unit trust, mutual fund, investment corporation, or similar investment vehicle should be determined based on the last prices published by their managers on the relevant Valuation Day.

93 / 100

93.

An _________ fund is a sub-category of a Venture Capital Fund that gathers funds from angel investors and invests following the SEBI Regulations.

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94. The Accredited Investor is aware that the units offered by a Category III AIF is meant for Accredited Investors and may be subject to the same regulatory oversight as other investment products and funds meant for other non-accredited investors. State whether True or False.

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95.

The Investment Manager of the Category III AIF is required to maintain records such as assets under the fund, valuation policies and practices, investment strategies, details of investors and their capital contribution, and investment decision-making process for a period of ________ after the winding up of the fund.

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96.

Investment Managers can also employ a _______ investment style, blending the principles of Value Investing and Growth Investing when selecting stocks.

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97.

The Category III AIF must guarantee that the calculation of the _______ is separate from the fund management function of the Fund.

98 / 100

98.

The _______ chosen by the Category III AIF is one of the most critical factors assessed in an Investment Due Diligence process.

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99. __________ are appointed by Category III AIF managers to get advice on domiciling the funds.

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100. __________ should also include reviewing the past investment experience of the team inter-alia involved in equity research, trade execution, order management, sales, compliance and fund administration.

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