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NISM Series XX: Taxation in Securities Markets Certification 'Final Test'

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NISM Series XX: Taxation in Securities Markets Certification ‘Final Test’

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1. The buyer of the option contract is required to pay an upfront fee called ___________.

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2. An income statement shall be required to be furnished to the income tax department by the securitization trust in _______.

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3. The period of holding for unlisted preference shares to qualify for long-term capital asset is ________.

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4. When anyone opens an account with NPS, he is allotted with a unique _______.

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5. For a non-resident Indian, the interest received from the notified infrastructure debt fund is taxable at _______.

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6. The short-term capital gain is chargeable to tax at the rate of ______ plus surcharge and cess if such capital gain arises from transfer of securities, being equity shares.

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7. The provisions of AMT shall not be applicable to the resident co-operative society opting for payment of taxes at the concessional rates prescribed under _______ of IT Act.

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8. The lenders earn lending fee for lending their securities to the borrowers and the nature of GST lived on such lending shall be ________.

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9. The losses arising from the transfer of bonus unit of a mutual fund shall be disallowed if any person buys a unit within a period of _______ prior to the record date.

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10. ‘Income from other sources’ will include which of the following?

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11. The target capital structure of the company is a function of _______.

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12. If return is not furnished, the TDS applicable on repurchase of units by UTI shall be _______ for a resident person as per section 194F of IT act.

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13. In the case of a Tier I NPS account, a minimum contribution of _______ is required every year.

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14. ______ of the Income-tax act defines the term assesses as the person who is liable for payment of taxes or any other sum of money under the Act.

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15. _______ is a mutual fund scheme that invests in other schemes of mutual funds.

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16. _______ are debt securities which are created from a select pool of assets, mainly, debt or receivables of an enterprise.

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17. The lending fees on lending of securities are liable to GST on the reverse charge mechanism.

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18. The book value of liabilities shall include _______.

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19. If an investment provides tax benefit at the time of deposit and withdrawal but return on such investment is chargeable to tax then it will fall under the category of _______.

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20. Which of the following are true about forward contracts?

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21. Section 44AD specifically prohibits an assesses from opting a presumptive taxation scheme in respect of _______.

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22. The scheme of indexation does not apply to any transfer of a bond or debenture.

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23. _______ is a contract that gives the holder the right to purchase or sell the underlying security at a specified price within a specified period.

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24. The employer will not be treated as an assessee-in-default if the employee has paid the tax due and furnishes a certificate from an accountant in ________.

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25. The income in the nature of interest on securities is taxable in the hands of the assessee under the head _______.

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26. A borrower can borrow securities to ________.

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27. The long-term capital gain over ______ shall be chargeable to tax if such capital gain arises from the transfer of securities, being equity shares.

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28. No taxability shall arise even in the hands of the resultant fund on receipt of a capital asset from the original fund as per ________ of the IT act.

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29. ________ entails swapping both principal and interest between the parties, with the cash flow in two different currencies.

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30. Under section 115A, for FPIs the dividend income from any security is taxable at _______.

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31. The GST threshold limit if the supplier is engaged in the business of supply of both goods and services is ________.

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32. If return is furnished, the TDS applicable shall be _______ for interest on securities for a resident person as per section 193 of IT act.

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33. Any interest income that REITs earned from SPV is exempt in the hands of REITs under _______.

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34. The income computation and disclosure standards ICDS -IV deals with ________.

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35. The Income-tax act defines the term salary under _______ which includes wages, annuity, pension.

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36. As per Section 112A of the IT act, 1961, long-term capital gains arising from the transfer of units of mutual funds is not chargeable to tax if the aggregate amount of capital gain during the year is below _______.

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37. _______ is a binding international legal instrument to implement the measures recommended by OECD.

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38. As per _______ during dissolution of a partnership firm the inventories shall be valued at the net realizable value on the date of dissolution.

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39. As per section 80-IAC of IT act, the total turnover of the eligible startup for benefit deferment of TDS shall not exceed _______ in the previous year for which deduction under Section 80-IAC is claimed.

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40. Under section 115AD, in case of foreign institutional investor, the interest on rupee-denominated bonds is taxable at ________.

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41. A firm or local authority or artificial juridical person cannot be ordinarily resident.

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42. The first tax instance on ESOP shall arise at the time of ________.

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43. The losses from a normal business can be adjusted against the profits of a speculative business.

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44. The income earned from investment in equity products are _______.

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45. The stock market or secondary market ensures _______.

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46. As per ______ of the IT act, an assessee has the option to pay tax at the rate of 10% on long-term capital gain without indexation.

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47. The value of any share allotted to an employee at ________ would be treated as perquisite.

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48. The trading in derivatives including commodity derivatives is regulated by ________.

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49. According to the Income-tax Act, 1961 ‘Assessment Year’ ________.

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50. If FPIs transfer their shareholding in an Indian company to someone else then they shall not be liable to pay capital gain tax.

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51. The shareholders or unit-holders were exempt from paying tax on the dividend income.

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52. An alternative investment fund shall be treated as a specified fund if all the units are held by non-residents except units held by the sponsor.

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53. Under section 115BAA of the IT act, 1961 any domestic company has an option to pay taxes at a concessional tax rate of ________.

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54. The debt or receivables acquired by the SPV from the originator and issued by SPV are called _______.

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55. The stamp duty shall not apply in case of off-market transactions

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56. The concept of REIT was introduced in 2014 by the _______.

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57. For a non-resident Indian, the interest received from bonds of an Indian PSU is taxable at _______.

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58. Regulation 5 of SEBI (FPI) Regulations, 2019, provides that an FPI can seek registration under ________.

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59. Capital Asset does NOT include which of the following ?

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60. The tier I NPS account is a voluntary saving account associated with PRAN of the subscriber.

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61. The carried forward loss from non-speculative business can be set off against ___________.

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62. The sovereign gold bond bear interest at the rate of _________ per annum on the nominal value of the bond.

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63. No deduction under Sections 80C to 80U shall be allowed from short-term capital gains covered under ______ of IT act.

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64. The provisions of AMT shall not be applicable to an HUF if the adjusted total income of such person does not exceed _______.

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65. The taxpayer shall opt for the presumptive taxation scheme under section 44AD of IT act if his total turnover does not exceed _______.

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66. The cost of equity is derived on the basis of the _______.

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67. The long-term capital gains, from sale of share allotted under ESOP to the extent it exceeds Rs.1,00,000 shall be taxable at the concessional rate of _______.

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68. An assesses engaged in business shall get the books of accounts audited if its gross turnover or receipts during the relevant previous year exceeds ________.

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69. The forward derivatives are standardized and hence involve no counterparty risk.

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70. The swap contracts are regarded as portfolios of forward contract.

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71. Who is involved in acceptance of allotment or call monies during a IPO?

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72. If return is furnished, the TDS applicable on repurchase of units by UTI shall be _______ for a resident person as per section 194F of IT act.

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73. _______ is an innovative type of bond, which is linked to rupee but issued to overseas investors.

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74. The pass-through status has been accorded to _______.

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75. No deduction is allowed in respect of any sum paid on account of ______ while calculating the capital gains from the sale of securities.

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76. The securities held by foreign portfolio investors are always treated as capital asset.

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77. If books of accounts of assesses are required to be audited under any other law, the audit report shall be furnished in ________.

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78. The provisions of MAT shall be applicable to the profits and gains arising to a company from the ________.

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79. In case of derivative transactions, the aggregate of both favorable and unfavorable differences is considered as the turnover.

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80. Any profit arising from the sale of Gold ETFs, after holding it for more than _______, is considered as long-term capital gain.

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81. The surcharge on the dividend income taxable shall be taxed at the rate ________ if it is above Rs.1 crore in case of a trust.

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82. Cash management bills are issued for a very short period usually less than _______.

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83. Which of the following is true with respect to category-III alternative investment funds?

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84. No tax implication arises either in the hands of the company or in the hands of the shareholders at the time of allotment of bonus shares.

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85. _______ are eligible to issue rupee denominated bonds.

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86. The scheme of indexation applies to _______.

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87. According to _______ of the Companies Act, 2013, a company cannot issue irredeemable preference shares.

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88. If all transactions are made through a bank account, the presumptive income shall be _______ of the turnover.

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89. ________ are eligible for lending and borrowing under the SLB scheme.

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90. To reduce the burden of taxes, the Finance act, 2020 amended ________ for direct payment of tax by the employee.

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91. If an investment is chargeable to tax only at the time of transfer or withdrawal then it will fall under the category of _______.

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92. The tax on capital gain arising on transfer is required to be deducted under section 196B of IT act only if such income is payable to an _________.

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93. As per section 80-IAC defined by DPIIT, an entity shall be considered as eligible start-up for benefit deferment of TDS for upto ________ from date of registration.

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94. Section 145 of the Income-tax Act provides a method of computation for income under ________.

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95. The normal business loss can be set-off against any income other than _______.

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96. The taxability of capital gains arising from the transfer of FCCBs is the same as in case of coupon bonds.

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97. The taxability of _______ is governed by Section 115TCA of IT act.

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98. The period of holding for GDRs to qualify for long-term capital asset is ________.

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99. An individual is treated as a resident in India if he stays in India for _______ or more in 4 years preceding the previous year.

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100. As per section 43(5) of the Income-tax act, a transaction of purchase or sale of any commodity is considered as a _________ if it is periodically or ultimately settled.

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