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NISM Series XII: Securities Market Foundation Certification 'Final Test'

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NISM Series XII: Securities Market Foundation Certification ‘Final Test’

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1. Which entity has commenced the shift from cash settlement to physical settlement in accordance with the criteria outlined in the relevant SEBI circulars?

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2. Which entities might issue equity or debt securities to meet their capital requirements beyond the usual funding sources of deposits and government grants?

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3. Certificates of deposit is issued by _________.

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4. What type of margin is collected in the futures market segment?

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5. What is an open-ended equity scheme that invests in accordance with an investment theme, such as housing or infrastructure?

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6. What is an open-ended scheme that invests in equity, arbitrage, and debt?

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7. What allows investors to transfer a specified sum periodically from one scheme to another within the same fund house?

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8. What entities, functioning solely as clearing members, are not trading members but are banks or custodians?

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9. What financial instruments combine features of an open-ended fund and a stock?

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10. In which markets are domestic issues exclusively made?

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11. _________ mutual fund does not have a fixed maturity date.

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12. Where are securities held in a dematerialized form in the modern securities markets?

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13. What is the term for the initial public offer of shares made by a company?

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14. How does the market demonstrate its role when the financial results of a company indicate losses leading to a decline in market share and a subsequent drop in the price of its equity share?

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15. What type of entity, registered with SEBI, enjoys complete tax exemption on its income?

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16. ________ have credit risk or the risk of default.

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17. What is a requirement for entities regarding the presence of collection branches, as specified by regulations?

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18. Which entities issue securities such as Bonds (G-secs) and Treasury bills?

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19. What investment feature enables investors to periodically redeem units from their existing mutual fund investments at the current Net Asset Value (NAV)-related price?

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20. What term refers to the equity share of an issuer that has superior voting rights compared to all other equity shares issued by the same issuer?

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21. What is defined as the swiftness and precision in execution, where an order is placed instantly and accurately as soon as the necessary conditions are met?

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22. For what purpose are derivatives typically employed?

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23. What are the functions of the primary market?

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24. What term encompasses all tools, measures, and processes intended to prevent cyber-attacks?

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25. At the time of a public share offering, companies engage in an agreement with institutions to subscribe to any remaining shares if they are not fully subscribed by investors. What is this agreement called?

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26. What is the term for the issuance of debentures through which the existing debt will be converted into equity at a predetermined date, price, and time?

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27. What happens in a derivative market when participants receive alerts, and the initiation of new positions is prohibited?

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28. Which entity does the Ministry of Corporate Affairs regulate the functioning of?

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29. The constituents of secondary market are _________.

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30. What role does a custodian play as a singular contact point for issuers during a new securities issue?

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31. What accounts are required for investors to invest in securities?

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32. What is the term for companies funded by equity?

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33. After how many days are trades settled following the trading day?

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34. How can the issuance of capital in the primary market be categorized?

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35. Which organization has set up a Department of Investors Services (DIS)?

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36. What is connected to investments through a variety of intermediaries using a range of intricate financial products?

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37. The members of the _________ include representatives from the Ministry of Finance, Ministry of Corporate Affairs and the RBI. rewrite questions

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38. What is the right of buying or selling the underlying asset without the obligation known as?

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39. Who is responsible for obtaining subscriptions to the issue?

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40. What is a contract that grants the buyer the right, without the obligation, to buy or sell the underlying asset at a specified price on or before a predetermined date, for a premium?

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41. What condition must a security fulfill to be listed on a stock exchange?

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42. What is the price used for determining daily mark-to-market margins in a futures transaction?

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43. What is a common characteristic of both equity investors and debt investors in relation to their role in a business?

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44. What is offered to existing shareholders in a proportion approved by a company’s board?

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45. Where can soft copies of the ________ be found, as indicated on the SEBI website and the lead manager to the issue’s websites?

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46. Pre-issue work of the RTA includes ___________.

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47. What type of securities encompass instruments used for raising and investing funds for periods ranging from one day up to one year?

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48. How do institutional investors manage their returns and risk, involving formal processes for __________?

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49. Who is the entity that carries out transactions in mutual fund securities?

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50. In whose name and under what authority are securities issued?

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51. What document must the broker generate for each client?

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52. How can raising capital for a company be facilitated when a syndicate of institutional investors buys equity or debt securities through a ___________?

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53. The ___________ is the current value of a mutual fund unit.

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54. What do models attempt to determine when finding the pricing of something similar to the asset being valued?

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55. What are orders placed at the prevailing market price to buy or sell called?

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56. What is a shared service platform for mutual fund transactions that is promoted by the mutual fund industry?

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57. What type of portfolio is composed of other funds rather than individual securities?

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58. When can the right to exercise be implemented in options trading?

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59. What are over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives that facilitate the buying or selling of an underlying asset on a future date at an agreed-upon price?

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60. A mutual fund cannot assure or guarantee __________.

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61. ___________ don’t try to surpass their benchmark; instead, they aim to produce returns similar to the benchmark.

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62.

Well-established securities markets are typically linked with robust ___________.

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63. The major institutions in the market infrastructure are called ___________.

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64.

When a business requires funds for its operations and growth, it decides between various types of securities.

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65. On derivative transactions carried out on the exchange, a fixed-rate __________ is also payable to the government.

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66. A _______ will be available for at least 3 working days and up to a maximum of 10 working days.

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67.

Investors who prefer putting their money in securities markets and other assets but want someone else to handle the creation and management of their portfolio opt for ____________.

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68. _________ is described as the increase in the overall price level of goods and services.

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69.

The derivatives traded on exchanges in India are known as _________.

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70.

Issuing securities to current investors, as of a particular cutoff date, to receive additional shares without any payment is known as __________.

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71. Start from the big picture and look at overall factors. Then, find specific industries and individual companies by recognizing larger trends. Is this statement True or False?

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72. Who oversees the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956?

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73.

Direct Market Access (DMA) connects the orders of institutional clients directly to the order book of the exchange.

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74. At the conclusion of each trading day, ____________ is calculated by comparing the transaction price with the closing price of the share.

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75.

__________ offer investors a convenient way to invest in various asset classes.

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76.

Mutual funds, financial institutions, scheduled commercial banks, and FIIs fall under the category of __________ investors.

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77.

When a Merchant Banker is assigned to offer advisory services to a government entity, certain considerations must be taken into account.

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78.

No issuer can carry out a public issue or rights issue of specified securities unless it has entered into an agreement with a ________ for the dematerialization of specified securities that have already been issued or are planned to be issued.

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79.

To ensure the utmost level of _______ and prioritize investor interests, SEBI mandates that merchant bankers adhere to the Code of Conduct outlined in the SEBI Regulations.

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80. The non-refundable fees to be paid to SEBI are specified in the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers-SAST) Regulations. For an open offer ranging from above Rs. 1000 crore but less than Rs. 5000 crore, the fee is Rs. _______ plus 0.03125% of the portion of the offer size exceeding Rs. 1000 Crore.

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81. A person shall not be deemed a promoter solely because they hold 10% or more of the equity share capital of the issuer. Options: a] Category III foreign portfolio investor; b] Financial institution; c] Mutual Fund; d] Scheduled Banks

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82. No, a Merchant Banker cannot be a lead manager in an issue if the associated merchant banker does not hold a SEBI Certification of Registration.

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83. According to SEBI SAST Regulations, the open offer for acquiring shares made by the acquirer should be for at least _______ of the total shares of the target company as of the 10th working day from the closure of the tendering period.

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84.

SEBI will not consider which of the following matters under the SEBI Complaints Redress System [SCORES]?

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85. When a transaction is conducted on the _______, the buyers and sellers may not be in direct contact with each other.

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86.

According to the SEBI SAST (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, if someone wants to buy a lot of shares in a company and has already announced it publicly, they can’t buy more shares in that company for a certain period after completing the first purchase, unless they make another voluntary offer to buy more shares.

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87.

In the process of ____________, the underwriter purchases the shares at a later stage, specifically after the pricing process is finished, and this happens if investors fail to make their payments during the allotment phase.

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88. The investor can receive Refund Orders, allotment letters, and share certificates through _______.

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89. _________ is a fund that can invest in either all the securities or a representative sample of securities included in the index.

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90. If a company has changed its name in the past year, it needs to have earned at least _____ of its revenue in the last full year from the activity specified by the new name to be eligible for a public issue.

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91.

True or False: The Department of Economic Affairs manages all matters related to the disinvestment of the Government of India’s shareholding in Central Public Sector Enterprises.

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92.

True or False: In the case of a preferential issue, the completion of the alternatives outlined in the special resolution must be done within 15 days of passing such resolutions.

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93. In India, the government securities are issued by the _______.

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94. True or False: According to the Code of Conduct for Merchant Bankers, a merchant banker is not responsible for the acts or omissions of its employees and agents concerning the conduct of its business.

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95.

As per SEBI ICDR Regulations, the issuer company conducting a public issue or a rights issue, with the aggregate value of the specified securities offered being Rupees _____ or more, must file the draft offer document along with fees through the lead merchant banker with SEBI before proceeding.

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96.

Every merchant banker is obligated to pay an initial fee of _______ as registration fees. A merchant banker holding a certificate of permanent registration must pay a fee of _______ every three years to maintain its registration.

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97. Is it possible for any non-promoter shareholder to sell their shares through the Offer For Sale using the Stock Exchange Mechanism?

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98. Which regulatory body determines the SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio) and CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) rates?

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99.

As per the listing agreement of BSE and NSE, the issuer’s minimum paid-up capital and minimum market capitalization should be ____ and ________, respectively.

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100.

As per the SEBI-Prohibition of Insider Trading Regulations, a person is considered a connected person if they __________.

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