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NISM Series VIII: Equity Derivatives 'Final Test'

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NISM Series VIII – Equity Derivatives ‘Final Test’

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1. The relationship between the spot price and the future price is known as ________.

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2. Longer the time to maturity of a PUT option, higher will be its ____________.

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3. If everything else remains constant and Stock P is more volatile than Stock Q, the call option on ______ will be priced higher, given that the prices of both stocks are the same at Rs. 500.

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4. Identify the accurate statement regarding a short position in a PUT option.

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5. Which of the following is not encompassed in the Indian equity derivatives market?

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6. If a holiday falls on the last Thursday, what will be the last trading day for a futures series?

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7. What tax is applicable to transactions conducted on a recognized Indian stock exchange?

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8. Option premium is the price paid by the _______.

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9. A ‘Closing buy transaction’ is a buy transaction that will have the effect of offsetting a ______.

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10. Which of these is an order with a time stipulation?

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11. Mr. Subu, who has a long position in a stock, can cover his position by selling ____.

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12. For extraordinary dividends exceeding 5% of the market value of the underlying security, the amount of dividend is _____ the strike price of options on the stock.

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13. Initial Margin can be paid by ________ .

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14. Which of the following is true for an ‘In-the-money’ option?

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15. A CALL OPTION will provide the buyer with _______.

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16. True or False: In the derivatives exchange, the net worth requirement for a clearing member is less than that of a non-clearing member.

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17. The New York stock exchange has two important indices – Dow Jones (DJIA) and Standard and Poor 500 (S&P 500). The DJIA is a _______ index where as the S&P 500 is a ______ index.

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18. Identify the accurate statement for an ‘In-the-money’ Call Option.

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19. A clearing member must deposit liquid assets with the Clearing Corporation, but these liquid assets cannot entirely consist of _________.

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20. What is the gain/loss for a trader who sold an ABC futures contract (contract multiplier 50) at 2500 and bought it back at 2700?

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21. Identify the CORRECT statement?

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22. If the futures price is decreasing while open interest is rising, it suggests a ___________.

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23. Intraday trading can be done in the case of _______ .

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24. Everest Ltd. has engaged in an agreement with Bank of Baroda, wherein Everest Ltd will receive interest at a rate of 7.5% per annum and will, in turn, pay interest to Bank of Baroda based on MIBOR, calculated on a principal amount of Rs. 25 crore for the next 3 years starting from today. This type of contract is commonly referred to as ________.

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25. As the strike price of a put option is reduced, its intrinsic value ________.

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26. SCORES is: __________

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27. Everest Mutual Fund accumulated Rs. 500 crores from investors through a new fund offer. The fund manager intends to invest this sum in acquiring 25 high-growth stocks over the next month. To mitigate the risk associated with this planned stock purchase, he can hedge it by implementing ________.

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28. In periods of elevated stock market volatility, the Bid-Ask spreads typically _______.

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29. True or False: Assuming all other characteristics are equal, the value of an American Call Option will not be lower than that of a European option.

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30. True or False: Equity shares provided by clearing members to the clearing corporation as part of liquid assets are generally NOT subject to regular mark-to-market assessments.

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31. In the Indian derivatives exchange, the matching of bids and offers occurs _______.

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32. The right to sell an asset at a predetermined price on or before a specified date is granted by _______.

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33. Identify the CORRECT statement from the given options –

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34. According to the Income Tax Act, losses from derivatives transactions can be offset against which type of income in the same fiscal year?

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35. The strategy in which Mr. Jones purchases a put option with a higher strike price and simultaneously sells another put option with a lower strike price, both on the same underlying share and with the same expiration date, is commonly referred to as ______.

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36. A member has two clients, M and N. Client M has purchased 300 contracts, and Client N has sold 250 contracts in the October ABC futures series. Determine the open position or outstanding liability of the member towards the Clearing Corporation in terms of the number of contracts.

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37. In the client’s financial statements, the balance in the Initial Margin account as of the Balance Sheet date should be categorized under the heading ________.

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38. Calculate the Intrinsic Value for the following Call option :
Current price of the stock – Rs. 340.
Call option of strike price Rs. 300 is quoted at Rs. 56

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39. Determining whether a futures transaction is for hedging or speculation primarily revolves around ________.

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40. The determination of the daily settlement price for equity derivatives contracts is made by ________.

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41. If a debit balance exists in the _________, it signifies an expected loss on a futures contract.

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42. Which of the following strategies exhibits a payoff profile identical to that of a Covered Call strategy?

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43. Value-at-risk measures the ________ .

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44. Arbitrageurs are regarded as a crucial link connecting ______.

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45. True or False: The MTM (Mark-to-Market) margin is always equivalent to the Initial margin.

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46. What is the specified size for contracts on individual stock futures/options?

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47. Rho is linked to the ________ .

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48. True or False: An investor anticipating a broad stock market fall can offset potential losses by shorting a certain number of Index futures, without selling their entire portfolio of stocks.

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49. If the ABC share price rises by Rs 5 and its option has a delta of 0.5, how much will the option price increase?

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50. The purchaser of an option is someone who possesses the ______ but not the _______ to buy/sell the underlying asset in the contract.

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51. According to the corporate hierarchy for users outlined in the trading system for stock exchanges, the exposure limits for the branches of the broking firm can only be defined by the ________.

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52. At a price level of Rs. 6300, what would be the worth of a single lot of ABC futures contract (with a contract multiplier of 50)?

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53. For a one-month CALL option on PQR stock with a strike price of Rs. 700 being Out-of-the-money, identify a potential spot price for PQR stock among these options.

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54. Identify the statement that is NOT TRUE regarding Impact Cost.

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55. ________ is an example of a derivative on energy resources.

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56. What Exchange function is primarily dedicated to ensuring stability in the derivatives market?

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57. What are the two most crucial factors to be taken into account when constructing an index?

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58. Mr. Surya has taken a long position in April Futures on ABC stock at 1200. He will incur a loss if the futures price moves to ________.

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59. A trading member is required to issue which of the following documents to all its clients?

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60. Which of these derivative contracts typically cannot be closed or reversed until their expiration?

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61. A buyer of Out-Of-the-Money (OTM) Call option is _______ .

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62. To support his view that Nifty will rebound from 17500 to 17700 levels in the next week, which option-based strategy should Mr. Manoj consider using?

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63. A ______ is an entity that is not a Trading Member but handles the clearing and settlement of trades for both Trading Members and institutional clients.

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64. Identify which of these is NOT an example of hedge.

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65. Speculators are individuals who aim to ______ risks, whereas hedgers are those who wish to ______ risks.

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66. What is the ‘ASK PRICE’?

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67. State whether the following statement is True or False: In a futures contract, the terms of the contract are determined by mutual agreement between the parties.

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68. In an ‘Immediate-Or-Cancel’ order, the unmatched portion of the order is ________.

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69. What is the approximate forward price of a share given a cash price of Rs. 750, a forward contract maturity of 6 months, and a market interest rate of 12%?

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70. The IPF (Investor Protection Fund) for the derivatives segment is ________ .

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71. Mr. Sriniwas assumes a short position in a call option without establishing any offsetting position in the underlying stock. This strategy is commonly referred to as ________.

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72. With regards to futures market, BASIS is the _______ .

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73. If the futures price of a stock is ______ and the open interest of the futures contract for that stock is ______, it indicates a bullish trend.

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74. State whether the following statement is True or False: Each forward contract can have a distinct delivery location, a unique maturity date, and a different contract size.

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75. State whether the following statement is True or False: The Clearing Corporation of an Exchange has the authority to prohibit a defaulting clearing member from further trading.

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76. Mr. Ashish acquired 25 PUT options for stock X at a premium of Rs 20 each, with a strike price of Rs 180. On the exercise date, the stock closed at Rs 240. Given this situation, Mr. Ashish will most likely opt to _________.

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77. What is the definition of ‘Contract Month’?

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78. How is it possible to close an open position in a futures contract?

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79. If you are a seller of a put option, you anticipate _________ of the underlying asset.

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80. An investor has employed a Short Hedge through stock futures. This is done to safeguard ________.

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81. Which of these grievances against a trading member can the Exchange address for resolution?

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82. Among the financial products mentioned here, which one is relatively more challenging to comprehend?

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83. For establishing limits on his trading members clearing through him, a Clearing Member will need to consult _______.

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84. The strike price is the price at which the ________ has the right to buy (for a call option) or sell (for a put option) the underlying asset by exercising the option.

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85. Identify the strategy characterized by ‘limited potential gain with limited potential loss’.

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86. In India, when the option holder exercises an In-The-Money (ITM) Call Option on a stock, ________.

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87. State whether the following statement is True or False: When the initial margin is set at lower levels, it becomes appealing for market participants to engage in transactions in the derivatives market.

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88. Identify the TRUE statement with respect to Futures Contracts?

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89. The Unique Client Code, assigned by the broker, is associated with the _________.

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90. With three series of one, two, and three months futures open simultaneously, how many potential calendar spread combinations could emerge?

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91. What type of order will you submit to purchase/sell a specific quantity of a share at a designated price or a more favorable one?

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92. What is Ms. Mishra’s net profit (+) or loss (-) when she sold a Put option with a strike of Rs 500 on PQR stock for a premium of Rs 50, considering a lot size of 1000, and on the expiry day, PQR stock closed at Rs. 440?

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93. The volatility estimation methodology __________ .

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94. The determination of the premium of an option is dependent on _______.

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95. How much initial margin is to be collected from both Mr. Deepak, who wants to purchase 20 contracts of the October series at Rs. 3500, and Mr. Suraj, who intends to buy 12 contracts of the November series at Rs. 3600? The lot size is 50 for both contracts, and the broker has set the initial margin at 8%.

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96. Identify the TRUE statement –

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97. Is the statement accurate or inaccurate – A hedged portfolio will consistently yield higher returns than an unhedged portfolio?

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98. Identify the action that allowed the trader to generate a profit of Rs. 8000 when he closed his short position of one contract in September ABC futures (Contract Multiplier 50) initiated at a price of Rs. 1200.

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99. Given a stock trading at Rs 100, Mr. Ashwin acquires a Straddle with a strike price of 100, paying Rs. 10 for the Call option and Rs. 5 for the Put option. From this data, determine the accurate statement.

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100. _______ represents an expense for market participants but is not specified in the contract note.

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