Certifications Mock Tests Study Material Menu Certifications Mock Tests Study Material NISM Series V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors 'Last Day Revision' Test 3 /100 NISM Series V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors ‘Last Day Revision’ Test 3 1 / 100 1. When should an investor use a strategy of restricting their investment in stocks to index funds? a) In the Sudden wealth phase b) In the Retirement phase c) In the Accumulation phase d) None of the above Explanation:Retirement Phase – This is the stage when the investor needs the funds that have been accumulated over time. Hence, investors in this stage would move the funds to asset classes that meet their need for easy access to funds or regular periodic income as the case may be. So the investor will invest more in debt/liquid funds and very less in equity funds. 2 / 100 2. True or False: Thematic funds will consistently have broader exposure than Sector funds. a) False b) True Explanation:Thematic funds invest in line with an investment theme. For example, an infrastructure thematic fund might invest in shares of companies that are into infrastructure construction plus in toll-collection, cement, steel, telecom, power, etc. The investment is thus more broad-based than a sector fund. Sector funds invest in only a specific sector. For example, a banking sector fund will invest in only shares of banking companies. 3 / 100 3. The system employed to make sure that the specified cutoff timing is strictly adhered to is known as _________. a) Auditing b) Stamp time c) Time stamping d) Time verification Explanation:The NAV that is applicable to a transaction depends, among other things, on the day and time at which the transaction request was received at the official point of acceptance. It is therefore very critical to record the time at which a transaction was received and use this information to determine the applicable NAV for a transaction. Time stamping is the process by which a stamp is put with details like date and exact time of receipt etc. on the transaction form. 4 / 100 4. True or False: The auditor assigned to audit the scheme accounts is identical to the auditor of the AMC (Asset Management Company) accounts. a) False b) True Explanation:The auditor appointed to audit the scheme accounts needs to be different from the auditor of the AMC. While the scheme auditor is appointed by the Trustees, the AMC auditor is appointed by the AMC. 5 / 100 5. True or False: In a rising interest rate environment, bond funds with a shorter average maturity are more likely to outperform. a) True b) False Explanation:Short-term debt funds help earn higher interest income in a rising interest rate scenario. (Bonds are essentially loans. If prevailing interest rates on loans, including bonds, are rising, bond investors tend to demand higher-yielding bonds to make more money on their bond investments). Long-term debt funds help investors earn higher returns from capital gains in falling interest rate scenarios. 6 / 100 6. Can an investor buy or sell investments directly through the websites of certain mutual fund companies? a) Yes, they can buy / sell units on the MFs website b) No, this is not allowed in India Explanation:The internet gave an opportunity to mutual funds to establish direct contact with investors. Investors can now access the website of the mutual fund and deal directly with the fund. 7 / 100 7. True or False: In India, investors are typically well-organized in handling their financial transactions and making decisions related to financial planning. a) False b) True Explanation:Most investors are either not organized, or lack the ability to make the calculations required for financial planning. A financial planner’s service is therefore invaluable in helping people realize their needs and aspirations. 8 / 100 8. True or False: Active funds generally provide higher returns because investors bear higher fund management expenses. a) True b) False Explanation:Higher fund management does not mean better performance. Also some time passive funds like index funds can give better returns than active funds due to the fund managers’ wrong analysis. 9 / 100 9. A person who suddenly becomes wealthy by winning a large lottery. Which of the following options is NOT recommended for him? a) Investment in liquid fund for a short period b) Investment in STP for investing in equities c) Investment of the full amount in equities d) Revisiting his financial plan Explanation:In situations of ‘Sudden Wealth’, it is advisable to initially block the money by investing in a liquid scheme. An STP (Systematic Transfer Plan) from the liquid schemes into equity schemes will help the long-term wealth creation process. One should not invest 100% of the amount in equities in one go. 10 / 100 10. What is a crucial component of an OFFER DOCUMENT? a) To inform the investors on the detailed information about the scheme b) To inform the investors on the performance of the scheme c) To provide a comparison of the schemes d) To inform the investors about the AMC's views on Stock Markets Explanation:Scheme Information Document (SID), Statement of Additional Information (SAI) and Key Information Memorandum (KIM) are part of the Offer Documents. These give detailed information about the mutual fund scheme. 11 / 100 11. Who should invest more in liquid funds: Mr. A, a small business owner, or Mr. B, a senior manager with a multinational company? a) Mr. B b) Mr. A Explanation:Mr. A may need funds for his business anytime so will allocate more amount to liquid funds. Mr. B has a good high-paying job, so he has a regular flow of money in the form of salary. He will generally have no liquidity problems so will invest less in liquid funds and more in growth funds. 12 / 100 12. Distributors primarily receive compensation through _________ from mutual funds. a) portfolio profits b) annual fees c) commissions d) salaries Explanation:Agents receive commissions on the amount mobilized by them. 13 / 100 13. If an investor submits a local cheque of Rs 3 crore for investment in a Gilt scheme at 11:30 am, what would be the relevant NAV (Net Asset Value) for this investment? a) The NAV of the business day on which the funds are available for utilisation b) The closing NAV of the next working day c) The closing NAV of the application day d) The closing NAV of the day preceding the date of application Explanation:Vide SEBI circular dated September 17, 2020, it was decided that with respect to purchase of units of MF schemes – both Debt and Equity (except liquid and overnight schemes), closing NAV of the day shall be applicable, on which the funds are available for utilization irrespective of the size and time of receipt of such application.Until now, investors who gave a cheque for below Rs 2,00,000 got the same day’s NAV, while those putting more got the NAV of the day when the cheque was realised. 14 / 100 14. When the Capital Base of an investor increases, his or her risk appetite will likely ___________. a) decrease b) increase c) change randomly d) remain same Explanation:The higher the capital base, the better the ability to financially take the downsides that come with risk. For eg – A person with a capital of Rs 1 crore can take more risks than a person with Rs 10,000. 15 / 100 15. The Offer Document will NOT provide any information on ___________. a) The risk factors of the scheme b) The features of the portfolio of the scheme c) Investment objectives of the scheme d) The name of stocks in which the scheme is likely to invest Explanation:The decision on the stocks to invest in is a closed-door procedure and is decided by the fund managers in association with the research and analysis team. 16 / 100 16. Which of the following investors will need board approval before investing in mutual funds? a) Retail investors b) High Networth investors c) Non Resident investors d) Institutional investors Explanation:Authorisation will be required from the board for the institution to invest. This is typically in the form of a Board Resolution. 17 / 100 17. True or False: Gilt schemes have higher risks compared to liquid schemes because their Net Asset Value (NAV) fluctuates more due to changes in the yield market. a) False b) True Explanation:Gilt schemes, which invest in only long term government securities, have a higher price risk because their NAV can fluctuate a lot more, on account of changes in yield in the market. Greater the proportion of longer maturity securities in the portfolio, higher would be the fluctuation in NAV. 18 / 100 18. True or False: Stock exchanges that offer mutual fund trading facilities are also required to provide settlement guarantee. a) True b) False Explanation:Stock Exchanges trading facility for MFs is essentially an order routing system between the investors and the AMC, the exchanges do not offer Settlement Guarantee. Responsibility for settlement is that of the AMC. 19 / 100 19. By investing in mutual funds, an investor utilizes the services of ___________. a) a professional investment manager b) a professional insurance agent c) a professional tax planner d) a professional actuary Explanation: Mutual Funds employ professional investment experts to manage the money of investors by investing in suitable stocks/debt etc. 20 / 100 20. In which type of fund is the risk of the investor not choosing the correct sector the highest? a) Thematic Funds b) Index Funds c) Sector Funds d) Arbitrage Funds Explanation:Sector funds suffer from concentration risk – the entire exposure is to a single sector. If that sector does poorly, then the scheme returns are seriously affected. Sector funds are considered to carry the highest risk among the equity mutual funds. 21 / 100 21. True or False: Tactical Asset Allocation is appropriate only for experienced investors working with significant investible surpluses. a) False b) True Explanation:Tactical Asset Allocation is the decision that comes out of calls on the likely behaviour of the market. It is suitable only for seasoned investors operating with large investible surpluses. 22 / 100 22. At what price can a Close-Ended fund be sold? a) At a price higher than NAV b) At a price same as NAV c) At a price lower than NAV d) At a price which can be higher or lower or same as NAV Explanation:The only way to sell a Close Ended fund before the fund closing date is by selling it on the stock exchange where it is traded. Prices on the stock exchange for a fund can be higher or lower or the same depending on the demand/supply/liquidity etc. 23 / 100 23. ___________ is an unfair selling practice by a mutual fund distributor. a) Giving personalised after sales service b) Informing the investor of the various investment options c) Encouraging the churning of investments d) Carefully understanding the clients financial needs Explanation:Churning means frequent buying and selling. Encouraging over-transacting and churning of Mutual Fund investments to earn higher commissions by MF agents is a bad practice. 24 / 100 24. True or False: Compared to goal-based financial planning, comprehensive financial planning requires a greater time commitment. a) False b) True Explanation:A comprehensive financial plan calls for significantly more time commitment on the part of both the investor and the financial planner. The comprehensive financial plan captures the estimated inflows from various sources, and estimated outflows for various financial goals, including post-retirement living expenses. The plan can go several decades into the future. 25 / 100 25. The Net Asset Value (NAV) of a mutual fund unit fluctuates daily due to changes in __________. a) market value of the mutual fund portfolio b) number of investors in the mutual fund c) the units remaining in the portfolio d) the size of the portfolio Explanation:The formula for calculating Net Asset Value –NAV = (Current value of investments held + Income accrued + Current assets – Current liabilities – Accrued expenses / No. of outstanding unitsSo when the current value of the investment held (ie. the market value of the portfolio) changes, the NAV will also change. 26 / 100 26. Which entity serves as the Self Regulatory Organisation (SRO) for the mutual fund industry? a) Trustees b) SEBI c) Sponsors d) None of the above Explanation:The Mutual Funds industry in India is in the process of getting an SRO to oversee its distributors (AMFI is not an SRO). 27 / 100 27. Which of the following carries the highest credit risk? a) G-Sec Fund b) Junk Bond c) Money Market Fund d) Income Fund Explanation: Junk bonds are a type of bond that carries a higher risk of default. The issuer of such bonds may not have the adequate cash flow to pay regular interest or repay the principal amount to the bondholders at the time of maturity. The bonds issued by financially struggling companies are termed junk bonds but they pay higher returns to make them attractive to investors. 28 / 100 28. Condensed financial information for schemes launched in the last 3 financial years is provided in the ______________. a) Statement of Additional Information (SAI) b) Prospectus c) Scheme Information Document (SID) d) Fact Sheet Explanation: Section I of the SAI gives complete details of the constituents of the mutual fund–Sponsors, AMC and Trustee Company, of service providers {Custodian, Registrar & Transfer Agent, Statutory Auditor, Fund Accountant (if outsourced) and Collecting Bankers}. This includes their experience, condensed financial information (for schemes launched in the last 3 financial years), key personnel, rights and obligations, and other information the investor may require to evaluate the investment. 29 / 100 29. What is the allowable investment range in equity instruments for a Conservative Hybrid Fund? a) Between 20 percent and 30 percent of total assets b) Between 5 percent and 20 percent of total assets c) Between 30 percent and 40 percent of total assets d) Between 10 percent and 25 percent of total assets Explanation: Conservative Hybrid Fund is an open-ended hybrid scheme investing predominantly in debt instruments. Investment in debt instruments shall be between 75 percent and 90 percent of total assets while investment in equity and equity instruments shall be between 10 percent and 25 percent of total assets. 30 / 100 30. If transactions were to occur at the NFO price, and the NFO price of a mutual fund scheme was Rs. 10 while its current Net Asset Value (NAV) is Rs. 8, what would be the outcome? a) The new investors as well as the existing investors in this scheme would stand to lose b) The new investors stand to lose at the cost of existing investors c) The new investors as well as the existing investors in this scheme would stand to gain d) The new investors stand to gain at the cost of existing investors Explanation:If the transactions are taking place at Rs 10 instead of the current NAV of Rs. 8, the new investors will stand to lose as they will have to pay a higher price to buy the units. The existing investors will be at an advantage as they can sell their units at a higher price of Rs 10 instead of Rs 8. 31 / 100 31. Mr. Anand has Rs. 5 lakhs to invest, but he may need money in the short term. In which of these funds should he AVOID investing? a) Overnight fund b) Liquid Fund c) Index fund d) Money-market fund Explanation:When an investor needs money in the short term, he should invest in debt funds like liquid funds, money market funds, overnight fund etc. where he can withdraw money without any risk of capital loss. He should not invest in an Index fund as its an equity fund and there can be possibility of losses in the short term due to stock market fluctuations. 32 / 100 32. Identify which among the following is the initial step in the sequence of creating a mutual fund product? a) Approval of Trustees and AMC board for the new product and drafting of SID b) Filing of Scheme Information Document (SID) with SEBI for observation c) Launching the New Fund Offer (NFO) d) Launch of advertising and public relations campaigns by AMC Explanation: Units in a mutual fund scheme are offered to investors for the first time by a New Fund Offer (NFO). The following are a few key steps leading to the NFO :1. AMC decides on a scheme to take to the market. This is decided based on inputs from the Chief Investment Officer (CIO) and the Chief Marketing Officer (CMO).2. AMC prepares the Scheme Information Document (SID) for the NFO. This needs to be approved by the Trustees and the Board of Directors (BoD) of the AMC.3. The documents are then filed with SEBI.4. The AMC decides on a suitable timetable for the issue. launches its advertising and public relations campaigns etc.5. The Scheme Documents and Application Forms are distributed to market intermediaries and circulated in the market so that investors can apply in the NFO. 33 / 100 33. Identify the CORRECT statement regarding the Time Horizon concerning the financial goal. a) Shorter the horizon to the goal, the ability to take risk is higher b) Longer the horizon to the goal, the ability to take risk is lower c) Time horizon has no link to financial goals d) Longer the horizon to the goal, the ability to take risk is higher Explanation:Investment time horizon : As against the investor’s age, one should consider the time horizon to the respective financial goal for which one is investing. Longer the horizon to the goal, the ability to take risks is higher, whereas one may avoid risks when the goal is shortly. 34 / 100 34. Mutual funds CANNOT distribute income/dividend out of __________. a) Income accruals b) Unrealised appreciation in value of investments c) Dividends which are received from equity investments d) Realised gains from sale of investments Explanation:SEBI guidelines stipulate those dividends can be paid out of distributable reserves. In the calculation of distributable reserves:– All the profits earned (based on the accrual of income and expenses as detailed above) are treated as available for distribution.– Valuation gains are ignored. However valuation losses need to be adjusted against the profits.– That portion of the sale price on new units, which is attributable to valuation gains, is not available as a distributable reserve. Since the investments in the portfolio are not yet sold, the gains in them are on paper – they are not realised. They will be realized when those investments are sold. 35 / 100 35. True or False: Investment in the Income Distribution cum Capital Withdrawal reinvestment option grows faster than the Growth option as the investor receives additional units. a) Its true only for equity funds b) Its true for all categories of mutual fund schemes c) It depends on whether the fund is open-end or close-end d) Its false for all categories of mutual fund schemes Explanation:In a Re-investment of Income Distribution cum capital withdrawal plan, the NAV declines to the extent of dividend. The resulting NAV is called ex-dividend NAV. However, the investor does not receive the dividend in his bank account; the amount is re-invested in the same scheme and additional units are allotted to the investor. The reinvestment happens at the ex-dividend NAV. The amount invested in the fund remains the same. Only the units increase and NAV decreases. Therefore the growth is the same for the Growth Option and Income Distribution cum Capital Withdrawal Re-investment option. 36 / 100 36. How will the Asset Management Company (AMC) or Registrar & Transfer (R&T) agent handle an application for subscribing to mutual fund units if the ARN is incorrectly mentioned in it? a) It will be rejected as incomplete application b) It will be treated as a regular plan subject to the error being corrected in the required time frame c) It will be considered as an incomplete application and sent back for completion d) It will be processed as a direct plan application Explanation:If the wrong ARN code is mentioned in the application form, then the application will be processed as a Regular Plan. However, the AMC will contact the investor/distributor for the right ARN code within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the application form. If the error is not rectified within these 30 days, the application will be reprocessed as a direct application without charging any exit load. 37 / 100 37. A Closed-end fund will have a ___________. a) Fixed Net Asset Value (NAV) b) Fixed Asset Under Management (AUM) c) Fixed Unit Capital d) Fixed Dividend pay-out ratio Explanation:Close-ended Schemes have an NFO Open Date and an NFO Close Date. But, they do not have a Scheme Re-opening Date, because the scheme does not sell or re-purchase units. Whatever sale-purchase of units takes place is between the investors on the stock exchange. Since the post-NFO sale and purchase of units happen to or from counter-party in the stock exchange–and not to or from the scheme–the unit capital of the scheme remains stable or fixed (The number of units issued by a scheme multiplied by its face value (Rs. 10) is the capital of the scheme–it’s Unit Capital) (In an Open-End scheme, the ongoing entry and exit of investors imply that the unit capital in an open-ended fund would keep changing regularly). 38 / 100 38. What effect would the appreciation of the US Dollar against the Indian Rupee have on an International fund investing in US stocks? a) The NAV of the scheme in Indian Rupees will appreciate b) No impact on the fund as its investing in stocks and not currency c) The NAV of the scheme in Indian Rupees will depreciate Explanation:When an Indian investor invests in equities abroad, he is essentially taking two exposures:– An exposure on the international equity market.– An exposure to the exchange rate of the rupee.If the investor invests in the US, and the US Dollar becomes stronger during the period of his investment, he benefits; if the US Dollar weakens (i.e., the Rupee becomes stronger), he loses or the portfolio returns will be lower. 39 / 100 39. Identify the INCORRECT statement/s:– A mutual fund investing across many countries will maintain its benchmark index, which is based on US equity markets.– For Gold ETF, gold prices will be the ideal benchmark. a) Only 2 is false b) Only 1 is false c) Both 1 and 2 are false Explanation:The benchmark would depend on where the scheme proposes to invest. Thus, a scheme seeking to invest in China might have the Shanghai Composite Index (Chinese index) as the benchmark. S&P 500 may be appropriate for a scheme that would invest largely in the US market. A scheme that seeks to invest across several countries, can structure a synthetic index that would be a blend of the indices relevant to the countries where it proposes to invest. Gold ETF NAVs closely track the price of gold since they reflect the value of gold held in custody for the units issued. Therefore, the gold price would be the benchmark for such funds. 40 / 100 40. The ____________ is used by the fund manager to communicate their views on the economy and the markets to the investors. a) Scheme Information Document (SID) b) Key Information Memorandum (KIM) c) Statement of Additional Information (SAI) d) Fund Factsheet Explanation:The fund factsheets are an official source of information of the fund’s objective, performance, portfolio and basic investment requirements issued by the fund house each month. The factsheet is also used by the fund manager to communicate their views on the economy and the markets to the investors and other observers such as research analysts, rating agencies, and media. 41 / 100 41. SEBI has to approve the Scheme Related Documents in _________. a) 1 month b) 7 days c) SEBI does not approve the Scheme Related Documents. It only gives its observations d) 15 days Explanation:SEBI does not approve or disapprove the Scheme Related Documents, it gives its observations. The mutual fund needs to incorporate these observations in these documents. Thus, the documents in the market are “vetted” by SEBI, and not approved by SEBI. 42 / 100 42. When does the investor in mutual funds need to provide information under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA)? a) When the investor's folio was a NRI account before change b) When the investor's place of birth is other than India c) When the investment is made through a foreign bank account d) When the investor is a resident of USA or UK only Explanation:For applicants, including guardians, whose country of birth/citizenship/nationality/tax residency is other than India, the application requires additional information under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA). 43 / 100 43. True or False: Key Information Memorandum (KIM) and Scheme Information Document (SID) are two broad types of scheme documents. a) True b) False Explanation:Scheme Information Document (SID) and Statement of Additional Information (SAI) are primarily the two important documents. Key Information Memorandum (KIM) is a summary of SID and SAI. 44 / 100 44. As per SEBI guidelines, _________ is/are entrusted with the responsibility of developing indices as benchmarks for debt mutual fund schemes. a) Research and rating agencies b) AMFI c) The risk management department of the AMC's d) The mutual fund themselves Explanation:As per the SEBI guidelines, the benchmark for debt (and balanced schemes) should be developed by research and rating agencies recommended by AMFI. CRISIL, ICICI Securities and NSE have developed various such indices. 45 / 100 45. All transactions of purchase and sale of securities by key personnel of the AMC, who are directly involved in investment operations, shall be disclosed to the compliance officer of the member at least on ___________. a) Weekly basis b) Yearly basis c) Monthly basis d) Half-Yearly basis Explanation:As per the AMFI Code of Ethics – All transactions of purchase and sale of securities by key personnel who are directly involved in investment operations shall be disclosed to the compliance officer of the member at least on half yearly basis and subsequently reported to the Board of Trustees if found having conflict of interest with the transactions of the fund. 46 / 100 46. True or False: The benchmark for a debt mutual fund scheme could be chosen based on Scheme Type and Scheme Size. a) True b) False Explanation:Scheme type and Choice of investment universe drive the choice of benchmark in debt schemes. For eg – Liquid schemes invest in securities of up to 91 days’ maturity. Therefore, a short-term money market benchmark such as NSE’s MIBOR or CRISIL Liquid Fund Index is suitable. Choice of Investment Universe Gilt funds invest only in Government securities. Therefore, indices based on Government Securities are appropriate. Debt funds that invest in a wide range of Government and Non-Government securities need to choose benchmarks that are calculated based on a diverse mix of debt securities. The size of the scheme is immaterial. 47 / 100 47. Which of the following does not affect the calculation of Net Asset Value (NAV)? a) Change in value of investments held by the scheme b) Daily accrual of income c) Daily accrual of expenses d) Change in the number of investors in the fund Explanation:While calculating the daily NAV, apart from the change in the value of investments, the actual and accrued income and expenses are also taken into account. These also affect the calculation of NAV. Change in the number of investors can affect the Asset Under Management (AUM) of a scheme but it won’t affect the NAV. (A scheme cannot show better profits by delaying payments. While calculating profits, all the expenses that relate to a period need to be considered, irrespective of whether or not the expense has been paid. In accounting language, this is called the accrual principle. Similarly, any income that relates to the period will boost profits, irrespective of whether or not it has been received in the bank account. This again is in line with the accrual principle). 48 / 100 48. True or False: Dividing an individual’s portfolio allocation between Core portfolio and Satellite portfolio is dependent on the risk profile of the investor. a) False b) True Explanation:Ideally, an investor’s portfolio should be divided into Core and Satellite portfolios. The core portfolio will be invested according to the long-term needs of the investor and the satellite portfolio will be invested to take advantage of expected short-term market movements. However, the division between core and satellite portfolios will depend upon each investor’s profile. Conservative investors may like a very small proportion of their overall portfolio to be managed tactically and an investor comfortable with taking a higher risk may have an even higher exposure to tactical investments. 49 / 100 49. Can an investor redeem any amount from a Segregated Portfolio? If yes, what are the restrictions? a) Only 25 % of the value of current investments can be redeemed from a Segregated Portfolio b) There is no restriction on redemptions from a Segregated Portfolio c) An investor cannot redeem any amount from a Segregated Portfolio from the AMC d) Only 50 % of the value of current investments can be redeemed from a Segregated Portfolio Explanation:“Segregated portfolio” means a portfolio, comprising debt or money market instruments affected by a credit event, that has been segregated in a mutual fund scheme. No redemption or subscription is allowed in the segregated portfolio. However, to facilitate exit to unitholders in segregated portfolios, AMC shall enable the listing of units of segregated portfolios on the recognized stock exchange. 50 / 100 50. What can serve as a benchmark for a Banking Fund? a) S and P BSE Bankex b) S and P BSE FMCG Index c) S and P BSE 500 d) S and P BSE Auto Explanation:The S&P BSE Bankex index comprises constituents of the S&P BSE 500 that are classified as members of the banks sector as defined by the BSE industry classification system. 51 / 100 51. For units of Equity Linked Savings Scheme (ELSS), the lock-in period is _____________. a) three years from the date of original investment, even in case of subsequent purchases by SIP b) three years from the date of original investment for each individual unit for purchases made by SIP c) There is no lock-in period if tax exemption is claimed Explanation:If one is investing in ELSS through SIP then each investment would be locked in from the date of the respective investment. The lock-in for the entire amount would not get over on completion of 3 years from the date of the first SIP installment. 52 / 100 52. Which distributor will be included in the due diligence process of the Asset Management Company as mandated by SEBI? a) A distributor who has AUM of over Rs. 100 crores from non-institutional investors b) A distributor who has received commission of over Rs 25 lakhs from one mutual fund c) A distributor who has presence in more than 10 locations d) All of the above Explanation:SEBI has mandated AMCs to put in place a due diligence process to regulate distributors who qualify any one of the following criteria:– Multiple point presence (More than 20 locations).– AUM raised over Rs. 100 crores across the industry in the non-institutional category including high net worth individuals (HNIs).– The commission received of over Rs. 1 Crore p.a. across the industry.– The commission received of over Rs. 50 Lakhs from a single mutual fund. 53 / 100 53. The SID, SAI, and KIM should be updated regularly, but the AMC makes temporary changes through the issuance of ____________. a) Director's Report b) Auditor's Report c) Fact Sheet d) Addendum Explanation:While the SID, SAI, and KIM need to be updated periodically, the interim changes are updated through the issuance of addendum. The addendum is considered to be a part of the scheme-related documents and must accompany the KIM. 54 / 100 54. What does it mean if a portfolio has a higher turnover? a) It implies higher capital gains b) It implies a long term orientation of the fund c) It implies higher transaction costs d) It implies lower capital gains Explanation:Portfolio Turnover is the value of Purchase and Sale of Securities during a period in a mutual fund scheme. The purchase and sale of securities entails broking costs for the scheme. Frequent churning of the portfolio would add to the transaction costs. 55 / 100 55. Mr. Ashu keeps his mutual fund units in demat form. If he wants to update his nominee or bank account details, he needs to get in touch with the _______________ and follow the necessary steps. a) Depository Participant b) R&T agent of the mutual fund c) Stock Exchange d) AMC / Mutual fund Explanation:All details such as an address, bank account details, nomination for the units held in DEMAT FORM is according to the information available in the depository’s records. Any changes to the said information have to be made by contacting his depository participant. 56 / 100 56. Find the correct statement about a Gilt Fund. a) The minimum investment in G-secs (as a percentage of total assets) is 70% b) The minimum investment in G-secs (as a percentage of total assets) is 85% c) The minimum investment in G-secs (as a percentage of total assets) is 75% d) The minimum investment in G-secs (as a percentage of total assets) is 80% Explanation:Gilt Fund is an open-ended debt scheme investing in government securities across maturity. The minimum investment in G-secs is defined to be 80 percent of total assets (across maturity). 57 / 100 57. What is the term for the Net Asset Value (NAV) after dividend payment? a) ex-Load NAV b) ex-Dividend NAV c) Net – NAV d) cum-Dividend NAV Explanation:After a dividend pay-out, the reduced NAV is called ex-dividend NAV. (After a dividend is announced, and until it is paid out, it is referred to as cum-Dividend NAV). 58 / 100 58. Find the correct statement according to AMFI’s Code of Conduct for Mutual Fund Intermediaries. a) Intermediaries should abstain from making negative statements about any Asset Management Company or scheme b) Intermediaries should rebate some of the commission received by them to the investors c) Intermediaries should split applications so that they can earn higher transaction charges Explanation:One of the clauses under AMFI’s Code of Conduct for Intermediaries of Mutual Funds is to abstain from making negative statements about any AMC or scheme and ensure that comparisons, if any, are made with similar and comparable products along with complete facts. 59 / 100 59. Which statement is accurate regarding a Switch transaction? a) Switch transaction is similar to a purchase transaction b) Switch transaction is allowed only after one year from date of purchase c) Switch transaction is a redemption from one mutual fund scheme and simultaneous purchase in to another scheme d) Switch transaction is similar to a sale transaction Explanation:A switch is a redemption from one scheme and a purchase into another combined into one transaction. For example, investors who believe that equity markets have peaked and want to book profits can switch out from an equity scheme and switch to a short-term debt fund. 60 / 100 60. Which statement is accurate regarding Cut-off timings? a) Cut-off timings are different from AMC to AMC b) Cut-off timings are prescribed by SEBI from time to time c) Cut-off timings are different for different RTAs d) Cut-off timings are agreed upon between the AMC and the Collection centers Explanation: SEBI has prescribed cut-off timing to determine the applicable NAV and these timings are uniformly applicable for all mutual funds. 61 / 100 61. __________ risk occurs due to variations in the price movements between the derivative and the security being hedged. a) Credit Risk b) Model Risk c) Market Liquidity Risk d) Basis Risk Explanation:Basis Risk arises due to a difference in the price movement of the derivative vis-à-vis that of the security being hedged. 62 / 100 62. Identify the TRUE statement(s):a. A diversified index typically has a Beta of 1.b. Unsystematic risk cannot be measured by Beta.c. A portfolio with a Beta of less than 1 is considered less risky than the market. a) a and c b) a and b c) b and c d) Only b Explanation:The diversified stock index, by definition, has a Beta of 1. Companies or schemes, whose beta is more than 1, are seen as more risky than the market. Beta less than 1 is indicative of a company or scheme that is less risky than the market.The risks that impact the entire economy are known as systematic risks. The company specific risks are also known as unsystematic risks. Systematic risk is measured by its Beta. 63 / 100 63. For which type of funds would indices based on Government securities be a suitable benchmark? a) Liquid Funds b) Gilt Funds c) Credit Risk Funds d) Money Market Funds Explanation:Gilt funds invest only in Government securities. Therefore, indices based on Government Securities are the appropriate benchmark. 64 / 100 64. Mr. X invested Rs. 2,00,000 in a 370-day FMP and received Rs. 2,15,832 at maturity. What is the capital gain in this transaction? a) Rs. 7,916 b) Rs. 13,750 c) Rs. 15,832 d) Insufficient Data Explanation:Capital Gains is calculated as the difference between the sum invested and the sum realized when the units are sold / matured.So in the above question, capital gain is Rs 215832 – 200000 = Rs. 15,832 65 / 100 65. Identify from the following which is not considered a fundamental attribute of a scheme. a) Investment pattern b) Type of scheme c) Investment objective d) Name of fund manager Explanation:The fund manager and his/her name is not a fundamental attribute of a scheme. 66 / 100 66. Mr. A, an existing investor in a mutual fund scheme, is investing Rs. 5000 in the direct plan of the scheme. What will be his net investment in the scheme after accounting for transaction charges? a) Rs. 5,000 b) Rs. 4,900 c) Rs. 4,875 d) Rs. 4,950 Explanation:Each mutual fund has to offer two plans to the investors, viz., regular plan and direct plan. In a regular plan the investment is through a mutual fund distributor and in a Direct plan, the investor purchases units directly from the fund. There are no transaction charges on direct investments. 67 / 100 67. In which of these cases will the ‘lock-in’ period in a retirement fund be less than the prescribed 5 years? a) When the age of the investor at the time of making initial investment is not less than 50 years b) When the retirement age is earlier than 5 years from the date of investment c) When the targeted corpus is achieved before 5 years d) All of the above Explanation:Retirement Fund is an open-ended retirement solution-oriented scheme having a lock-in of 5 years or till retirement age (whichever is earlier). Scheme having a lock-in for at least 5 years or till retirement age whichever is earlier. 68 / 100 68. Distributors can ‘opt-out’ of charging transaction charges _____________. a) at investor level b) at AMC level c) at distributor level d) at scheme level Explanation:Distributors have the option of opting out of charging transaction charges. But such opting out shall be applicable only at distributor level. This means that the distributor cannot choose to charge transaction charge from one investor and not from another. 69 / 100 69. ____________ invest in those securities which have maturity matching the maturity of the scheme. a) High Yield Funds b) Fixed Maturity Plans c) ELSS Funds d) Exchange Traded Funds Explanation:Fixed Maturity Plans are a kind of close-ended debt fund where the duration of the investment portfolio is closely aligned to the maturity of the scheme.Fixed Maturity Plan is ideal when the investor’s investment horizon is in sync with the maturity of the scheme, and the investor is looking for a more predictable return than any conventional debt scheme, and a return that is generally superior to what is available in a fixed deposit. 70 / 100 70. A person wants to create a synthetic index. Guide him as to in which of these categories the weightage of equity index would be the lowest? a) Aggressive hybrid fund b) Balanced hybrid fund c) Super aggressive hybrid fund d) Conservative hybrid fund Explanation:In a CRISIL Conservative Hybrid Fund, the equity component will be only 25% and Debt will be 75%.In Aggressive Hybrid Fund, the ratio of Equity and Debt is 75% and 25%, and in a Balanced Hybrid Fund, the ratio is 50% and 50%. 71 / 100 71. What are the guidelines issued by AMFI for intermediaries called? a) Know Your Distributor guidelines b) SEBI Brokers and Intermediaries guidelines c) AMFI Guidelines and Norms for Intermediaries (AGNI) Explanation:AMFI has framed a set of guidelines and code of conduct for intermediaries (known as AMFI Guidelines & Norms for Intermediaries (AGNI)), consisting of individual agents, brokers, distribution houses and banks engaged in selling of mutual fund products. 72 / 100 72. Identify the true statement regarding measuring returns for Mutual Fund schemes.1. Simple Return can be calculated using the formula: (Sale Price – Cost Price) / Sale Price.2. Compounded Annual Growth Rate ‘CAGR’ technique has been prescribed by SEBI when the dividends are paid and compounding is to be considered.3. CAGR is the recognized standard for calculating returns for an investment horizon of greater than or equal to 1 year. a) 3 and 1 b) 1,2 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 2 Explanation:1. Simple Return can be calculated with the following formula : Sale Price – Cost Price / Cost Price2. Whenever a dividend is paid – and compounding is to be considered – the CAGR technique (or the reinvestment method, as some call it) prescribed by SEBI is used3. The return is calculated using CAGR if the holding period is over one year. If returns are less than one year, than Simple Return is calculated. 73 / 100 73. Identify the TRUE statement:1. Retail investors can buy units of Gold ETF.2. Banks, as well as Mutual Funds, both offer Gold deposit schemes.3. Gold ETF is a closed-ended fund, so the holdings are not perpetual. a) Only statement 1 is true b) Only statement 3 is true c) Only statement 2 is true d) All 1,2 and 3 are true Explanation:Gold ETF’s can be easily bought by retail investors as the minimum traded quantity is 1 unit ie. 1 gram.The Gold deposit scheme is offered only by banks to mobilise the idle gold in the country and put it in productive use and to provide the customer an opportunity to earn interest on the idle gold holdings.All Exchange Traded Fund are open-ended schemes. 74 / 100 74. The minimum investment limit in equity/equity-related instruments of large-cap companies for a Large Cap mutual fund scheme is __________ of total assets. a) 70% b) 80% c) 85% d) 90% Explanation:A Large Cap Fund is an open-ended equity scheme predominantly investing in large cap stocks. As per SEBI rules on asset allocation, the minimum investment in equity and equity related instruments of large cap companies shall be 80 percent of total assets. 75 / 100 75. A board resolution for investing in a mutual fund scheme is compulsory for ____________. a) Non Resident Indians – NRIs b) Institutional Investors c) Hindu Undivided Family – HUF Explanation:Institutional investors require a authorisation for the investing in any security / asset etc. This is typically in the form of a Board Resolution. 76 / 100 76. ___________ can be used instead of distributing dividends. a) Total Redemption b) Systematic Transfer Plan (STP) c) Systematic Investment Plan (SIP) d) Systematic Withdrawal Plan (SWP) Explanation:Mutual funds make it convenient for investors to manage their SWPs by registering the amount, periodicity (generally, monthly) and period for their SWP.Some schemes even offer the facility of transferring only the appreciation or the dividend. In this option, the withdrawal is not fixed but will vary depending upon the availability of appreciation in the specific investment chosen by the investor. 77 / 100 77. What is the highest allowable limit of investment that a single investor can have in a scheme? a) 25% of the corpus b) 5% of the corpus c) 20% of the corpus d) 10% of the corpus Explanation:As per SEBI rules, a Scheme/Plan shall have a minimum of 20 investors and no single investor shall account for more than 25 percent of the corpus of the Scheme/Plan(s). 78 / 100 78. Which of these statement(s) is/are TRUE?1. There cannot be a price impact on mutual fund units due to portfolio rebalancing and/or liquidity demands on account of redemptions.2. Market liquidity of mutual fund units can be affected by company/sector-related events. a) Only 2 b) Only 1 c) Both 1 and 2 Explanation:Liquidity Risk is one of the general risk factor involved in Mutual Fund investments.The liquidity of investments made in the Scheme may be restricted by trading volumes, settlement periods and transfer procedures. Although the investment universe constitutes securities which will have high market liquidity, there is a possibility that market liquidity could get impacted on account of company/sector/general market related events and there could be a price impact on account of portfolio rebalancing and/or liquidity demands on account of redemptions. 79 / 100 79. Where should an individual update the change in status from a Resident to a Non-Resident Indian for mutual fund investments? a) It should be updated with the directly with the Mutual Fund b) It should be updated with the KYC Registration Agency c) It should be updated with the Registrar and Transfer Agent d) It can be updated with any of the three options provided Explanation:The KYC Registration Agency (KRA) prescribes a ‘Change Form’ to be used to register change, if any, in the information provided at the time of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process. These include:• Change in Name• Change in Status/ Nationality• Change in PAN• Change in permanent address or address for correspondence etc. 80 / 100 80. The Asset Management Company primarily compensates mutual fund distributors through ___________. a) Share in AMC's profit b) Salaries c) Commissions d) Salary + Commission Explanation:The mutual fund distributor earns revenue in the form of commission income for the distribution of the mutual fund products/schemes. The commission may be linked to either the transaction (Upfront commission) or to the assets under management (Trail Commission). 81 / 100 81. The choice of benchmark for a Debt Scheme could be chosen based on:1. Scheme Size2. Scheme Type3. Investment Universe a) Both 2 and 3 b) Both 1 and 2 c) Both 1 and 3 d) All 1,2 and 3 Explanation:Scheme type and Choice of investment universe drive the choice of benchmark in debt schemes.For eg – Liquid schemes invest in securities of up to 91 days’ maturity. Therefore, a short-term money market benchmark such as NSE’s MIBOR or CRISIL Liquid Fund Index is suitable.Choice of Investment Universe Gilt funds invest only in Government securities. Therefore, indices based on Government Securities are appropriate. Debt funds that invest in a wide range of Government and Non-Government securities need to choose benchmarks that are calculated based on a diverse mix of debt securities. The size of the scheme is immaterial. 82 / 100 82. What is the allocation of investment in equity and equity-related instruments in a Balanced Hybrid Fund? a) Between 10% to 20% of total assets b) Between 20% to 30% of total assets c) Between 40% to 60% of total assets d) Between 60% to 80% of total assets Explanation:Balanced Hybrid Fund is an open-ended balanced scheme investing in equity and debt instruments. The investment in equity and equity-related instruments shall be between 40% and 60% of total assets while investment in debt instruments shall be between 40% and 60%. 83 / 100 83. For which mutual fund distributors is a due diligence process mandated by SEBI? a) A mutual fund distributor who receives commission of over Rs. 50 Lakhs from a single mutual fund b) A mutual fund distributor who services more than 25 investors c) A mutual fund distributor who brings in investments from investors of over Rs. 1 crore for a single mutual fund d) All of the above Explanation:SEBI mandates a due diligence process for mutual fund distributors who are registered with the regulatory authority. This process ensures that distributors assess investor suitability, provide necessary disclosures, and act in the best interest of clients. It aims to enhance transparency and protect investors’ interests in the mutual fund market. 84 / 100 84. Identify the TRUE statements:A) Unsystematic risk is not measured by its Beta.B) The diversified stock index typically has a Beta of 1.C) An investment with a beta of 0.7 will move 7% when markets move by 10%. a) A and C are true b) B and C are true c) A and B are true d) All A, B and C are true Explanation:1) Systematic risk is measured by its Beta2) The diversified stock index, by definition, has a Beta of 1. Schemes, whose beta is more than 1, are seen as more risky than the market. Beta less than 1 is indicative of a scheme that is less risky than the market.3) An investment with a beta of 0.7 will move 7 percent when markets move by 10 percent. This applies to increase as well as fall in values. An investment with a beta of 1.2 will move by 12 percent both on the upside and downside when markets move (up/down) by 10 percent. 85 / 100 85. As per SEBI Code of Conduct, mutual fund scheme portfolios should be managed in the interest of ___________. a) Brokers b) Sponsors c) Trustees d) All classes of unit holders Explanation:As per SEBI Code of Conduct – Trustees and asset management companies shall carry out the business and invest in accordance with the investment objectives stated in the scheme related documents and take investment decision solely in the interest of unitholders. 86 / 100 86. The Key Information Memorandum (KIM) is a condensed version of which of these documents? a) The yearly statement of the portfolio of the fund b) The annual accounts of the fund c) The half yearly statement of the financial statement of the fund d) Scheme related documents SID and SAI Explanation:KIM is essentially a summary of the Scheme Information Document – SID and Statement of Additional Information -SAI. Scheme-related documents consist of SID and SAI. It contains the key points of these documents that are essential for the investor to know to decide on the suitability of the investment for their needs. 87 / 100 87. Investments have to be made only through authorized signatories for investments by ____________. a) Institutional investors b) Non Resident Indians (NRI) c) Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) d) High net worth individuals (HNI) Explanation:Since institutional investors are not natural persons, authorized individuals invest on behalf of the institution. Authorization for the investing institution to invest is typically in the form of a Board Resolution. 88 / 100 88. If an investor claims their unclaimed redemption amount after 3 years, the payment will be based on the ___________. a) NAV at the end of three years b) current NAV c) NAV at the time of original redemption d) average of the NAVs ie. current NAV and NAV at the time of original redemption Explanation:Recovery of unclaimed amounts by the investors is as follows:• If the investor claims the money within 3 years, then payment is based on prevailing NAV i.e. after adding the income earned on the unclaimed money.• If the investor claims the money after 3 years, then payment is based on the NAV at the end of 3 years. 89 / 100 89. Identify the factors that must be considered to determine the asset allocation for an investor. a) AUM of the scheme b) Past performance of the scheme c) Financial goals of the investor and his financial situation d) Scheme expenses Explanation:Asset Allocation is allocation aligned to the financial goals of the individual. It considers the returns required from the portfolio to achieve the goals, given the time horizon available for the corpus to be created and the risk profile of the individual. 90 / 100 90. Identify which of these is a role or responsibility of the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI)? a) To calculate the correct NAVs b) To manage the Investor Protection Fund c) To make available the AUM, NAV and other important data of the mutual fund industry d) To regulate and control insider trading Explanation:AMFI makes available the AUM, NAV and other important data of the mutual fund industry on its website.(Calculation of NAV is the duty of the mutual fund / SEBI regulates insider trading / Stock exchanges manage the Investor protection fund). 91 / 100 91. An investor is interested in purchasing units of a closed-ended fund after the New Fund Offer (NFO) is closed. How can they buy the same? a) He can buy the units on the stock exchange from market makers appointed by the mutual fund b) He can buy the units on the stock exchange from other investors who were allotted the units and are interested in selling c) He cannot buy units of a close ended fund d) He can buy the units from the mutual fund itself when they open the sale at periodic intervals as announced by the fund Explanation:A close-ended scheme offers liquidity through its listing on a stock exchange. Unit holders who are interested in selling can offer their quotes and new investors can buy them. 92 / 100 92. Identify the true statement regarding investments in mutual funds through stock exchanges. a) The mutual fund units purchased through a stock exchange have a mandatory lock-in period of 30 days b) One can buy mutual fund units on stock exchange but cannot sell them on stock exchange c) Stock exchanges have now become another important channel for mutual fund companies to sell their units to investors d) None of the above are true Explanation:SEBI has facilitated buying and selling of the units of mutual funds through the stock exchanges. Exchanges have developed mutual fund transaction engines for the purpose. The low cost and deeper reach of the stock exchange network enables an increased level of participation of retail investors in mutual funds. 93 / 100 93. In the case of ___________, the Net Asset Value has to be declared up to 4 decimal points. a) Liquid Funds b) Aggressive Hybrid Funds c) Mid Cap and Small Cap Funds d) ELSS Funds Explanation:NAV is to be calculated up to 4 decimal places in the case of index funds, liquid funds, and other debt funds. (NAV for equity and balanced funds is to be calculated up to at least 2 decimal places). 94 / 100 94. Identify the FALSE statement(s):A – Authorised signatories have to sign the request for transactions of institutional investors in mutual funds.B – Even if the Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association do not permit investment in mutual funds, the company can invest in mutual funds based on a Board Resolution. a) Statement A is false b) Statement B is false c) Both statements A and b are false Explanation:1. A company cannot invest in mutual funds if its incorporation documents ( (Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association) do not provide for investments of this type.2. The mutual fund can allow transactions only if the transaction form/slip carries the signature of any (one or more, as required) of the authorized signatories. 95 / 100 95. On what basis will the payment be made to an investor who claims their previously unclaimed redemption amount within three years? a) The amount paid will based on the NAV at the time of original redemption plus income earned on the unclaimed amount and deducting any penalty on the same b) The amount paid will based on the NAV at the time of original redemption plus income earned on the unclaimed amount c) The amount paid will based on the average of the NAV at the time original redemption and todays NAV after accounting for income earned and penalty if any d) The amount paid will based on the prevailing NAV after adding the income earned on the unclaimed profits Explanation:Recovery of unclaimed amounts by the investors is as follows:• If the investor claims the money within 3 years, then payment is based on prevailing NAV i.e. after adding the income earned on the unclaimed money.• If the investor claims the money after 3 years, then payment is based on the NAV at the end of 3 years. 96 / 100 96. The form for registering a change in the default bank account has to be signed __________. a) by all the holders of the folio b) by the first holder only c) according to the mode of holding of the folio d) by all the holders of the bank account Explanation:The form for registering the change in default bank account has to be signed according to the mode of holding of the folio. 97 / 100 97. Some of the costs incurred by the Asset Management Companies to manage the mutual fund schemes can be charged to ___________ in proportion to their holding of units in the scheme. a) Unit holders b) Distributors c) Independent Financial Advisors d) Stock Brokers Explanation:All the investor’s money is pooled together in a scheme. Costs incurred for managing the scheme are shared by all the Unit-holders in proportion to their holding of units in the scheme. 98 / 100 98. Identify the FALSE statement.1. Arbitrage funds can invest in both Futures/Options (F&O) and cash markets.2. The only objective of an Arbitrage fund is to provide capital appreciation.3. Arbitrage funds have lower risk compared to Equity Funds. a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 3 d) Both 2 and 3 Explanation:Arbitrage funds work on the mispricing of equity shares in the spot and futures market. The fund manager simultaneously buys shares in the cash market and sells it in futures or derivatives markets. The difference in the cost price and the selling price is the return you earn.Their risk level is comparable with that of a pure debt fund. The returns from an Arbitrage fund is comparable to a debt fund. There is no capital appreciation. 99 / 100 99. Under what circumstances can mutual funds charge an additional expense of 0.30% of daily net assets of the scheme? a) If the new inflows from beyond top 15 cities are at least (a) 25 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or (b) 15 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher b) If the new inflows from beyond top 30 cities are at least (a) 20 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or (b) 5 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher c) If the new inflows from beyond top 30 cities are at least (a) 30 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or (b) 15 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher d) If the new inflows from beyond top 15 cities are at least (a) 10 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or (b) 5 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher Explanation:In addition to the normal expenses limit, the following expenses may be charged to the scheme :If the new inflows from beyond top 30 cities are at least :(a) 30 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or(b) 15 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme whichever is higher, funds can charge the additional expenses of up to 0.30 percent of the daily net assets of the scheme. 100 / 100 100. Mrs. Neeta needs Rs. 5,00,000 in 3 years from now. The interest rate is 6%. By which formula can we calculate the amount which is required to be invested today to achieve the goal? a) 500000 / (1+0.06)^3 b) 500000 * (1- 0.06)^3 c) 500000 * (1+0.06)*3 d) 500000 / (1+0.06)*3 Explanation:Present value formula = F / (1 + r) ^ nWhere F is the future value (500000) ; r is the rate of interest (6% p.a.); and n is the number of years (3)= 500000 / (1+0.06)^3 Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit