Certifications Mock Tests Study Material Menu Certifications Mock Tests Study Material NISM Series V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors 'Last Day Revision' Test 2 /100 NISM Series V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors ‘Last Day Revision’ Test 2 1 / 100 1. An ongoing bond fund will lose value when the interest rates in the market ______ . a) remains same b) will be equal to yields c) Fall d) Rise Explanation:Suppose an investor has invested in a debt security that yields a return of 7 percent. Subsequently, yields in the market for similar securities rise to 8 percent. It stands to reason that the security, which was bought at 7 percent yield, is no longer such an attractive investment. It will therefore lose value. 2 / 100 2. The difference between the yield on Gilt and the yield on a non-Government Debt security is called its ______ . a) Credit Spread b) YTM c) Risk Spread d) Yield to Call Explanation:The yield on Gilt (Govt. securities) is generally the lowest in the market for a given tenor. Since non-Government issuers can default, they tend to offer higher yields for the same tenor.The difference between the yield on Gilt and the yield on a non-Government Debt security is called its credit spread. 3 / 100 3. When a mutual fund scheme generates profits or incurs losses, these profits and losses belong to _______ . a) The AMC b) The Fund Manager c) The Trustees d) The Investor Explanation:The investor enjoys the profits as well as bears the losses of his investments in Mutual Funds. 4 / 100 4. A fundamental analyst will study the Candle-Stick charts and also the financial statement of a company. State whether True or False? a) False b) True Explanation:Fundamental analysis is a study of the business and financial statements of a firm. It does not study the charts like the Candle-Stick charts.Charts are studied by the Technical analysts. 5 / 100 5. The return from a mutual fund scheme is 8.3% and the Standard Deviation is 0.6. The risk-free rate of return is 5%. Calculate the Sharpe ratio. a) 3.5 b) 5.5 c) 2.87 d) 4 Explanation:The formula for Sharpe Ratio is : ( Rs-Rf ) / Standard Deviationie. ( Return Earned – Risk free Return ) / Standard Deviation= (8.3 – 5) / 0.6= 3.3 / 0.6= 5.5 6 / 100 6. Ms. Apeksha puts Rs 2 crore into a Gilt scheme at 2 pm using a local cheque. What is the relevant NAV (Net Asset Value) for getting units assigned? a) Closing NAV of date of application b) Closing NAV of day immediately preceding the date of application c) Closing NAV of next business day d) NAV of the business day on which the funds are available for utilization Explanation:Irrespective of the time of receipt of application, for all equity oriented funds and debt funds (except liquid funds) in respect of transaction of any amount, the applicable NAV will be NAV of the business day on which the funds are available for utilisation. 7 / 100 7. The trustees of a mutual fund are chosen by the ______. a) Sponsors b) Custodian c) Asset Management Company (AMC) d) SEBI Explanation:The application to SEBI for registration of a mutual fund is made by the Sponsor(s).The Sponsors then appoints the Trustees.The operations of the mutual fund trust are governed by a Trust Deed, which is executed between the sponsors and the trustees. 8 / 100 8. How can a mutual fund distributor’s approval be ended? a) When all the clients of the distributor shift to Direct Plans b) Asset Management Company can terminate the empanelment at any time c) The empanelment gets automatically terminated on the completion of the term of empanelment d) All of the above Explanation:While empaneling with an AMC, the mutual fund distributor applicant signs a declaration which gives power to the AMC to terminate the empanelment at any time. 9 / 100 9. Which of the following is NOT RIGHT regarding Mutual Funds advertisements by AMCs? a) The advertisements can show past performance of the scheme b) The advertisements can use celebrities for endorsements c) The advertisements can show the return numbers d) All of the above are incorrect Explanation:As per the SEBI Advertisement Code for Mutual Funds – No celebrities shall form part of the advertisement.(AMFI can use celebrities but individual mutual funds cannot use celebrities) 10 / 100 10. If a mutual fund makes a deal to buy or sell securities with any of its associates, the members of the Asset Management Company of the mutual fund must _________. a) Make certain that the transactions happens at a price that is better than the closing market price b) Inform the mutual fund unitholders of the intent to undertake the transaction before it is done c) Take the approval of the trustees before undertaking the transactions d) Justify the fairness of the transaction to the Board of Trustees Explanation:As per the AMFI Code of Ethics for Mutual Funds :Members shall in respect of transactions of purchase and sale of securities entered into with any of their associates or any significant unitholder :1. Submit to the Board of Trustees details of such transactions, justifying its fairness to the scheme2. Disclose to the unitholders details of the transaction in brief through annual and half yearly reports. 11 / 100 11. Spot the incorrect statement – – a) Mutual funds units which have been purchased on a stock exchange have a compulsory lock-in period b) Mutual funds units can be bought on stock exchanges but they cannot be sold there c) Both of the above are false Explanation:SEBI has facilitated buying and selling of the units of open-ended mutual funds through the stock exchanges. The low cost and deeper reach of the stock exchange network enable an increased level of participation of retail investors in mutual funds.Mutual fund units can be bought and sold on stock exchange and they do not have a lock-in period except some funds like ELSS. 12 / 100 12. Risk profilers are utilized to determine an investor’s risk appetite. Is this statement true or false? a) True b) False Explanation:Risk Profilers usually revolve around investors answering a few questions, based on which the risk appetite score gets generated.The risk profilers try to ascertain the risk appetite of the investor so that one does not sell mutual fund schemes that carry a higher risk than what the investor can handle. 13 / 100 13. Which of the following statements is correct for a mutual fund scheme’s monthly income distribution cum capital withdrawal plan (IDCW)? a) The mutual fund cannot guarantee declaring the IDCW amount or frequency b) The mutual fund cannot guarantee declaring the IDCW amount or frequency c) The mutual fund guarantees declaring the IDCW, however the amount may differ d) None of the above Explanation:The Income distribution cum capital withdrawal (dividend) pay-out option seems attractive for investors wanting a regular income. It should however be kept in mind that even in a mutual fund scheme with a monthly pay-out option, dividend declaration is a function of distributable surplus. If there is no surplus to distribute, dividend cannot be declared.Therefore, the investor is not assured of dividend in the scheme even when there is a monthly dividend option. 14 / 100 14. Identify the incorrect statement/s. A. NRIs can make investments in mutual funds on a repatriable basis. B. The mutual fund will automatically pay in Dollars when the NRI redeems investments made on a repatriable basis. a) Only A is false b) Only B is false c) Both A and B are false Explanation:For Non-resident investors, payment is made by the AMC in Rupees. In case the investment has been made on a repatriable basis, and the investor wishes to transfer the money abroad, the costs associated with converting the rupees into any foreign currency would be to the account of the investor.Proceeds of investments made on a repatriable basis can be credited to an NRE or FCNR account, as required by the investor. 15 / 100 15. In which of these situations does the Mutual Fund have to credit back the additional Total Expense Ratio (TER) charged? a) When the inflows from beyond the top 30 cities are redeemed within a period of 1 year from the date of investment. b) When the performance of the mutual fund declines as compared to previous year c) When the TER of the mutual fund exceeds the limit specified under the regulations d) All of the above Explanation:Mutual funds can charge additional TER if the new inflows are from beyond top 30 cities (subject to some conditions)However, the additional TER on account of inflows from beyond the top 30 cities so charged shall be credited back to the scheme in case the said inflows are redeemed within a period of 1 year from the date of investment. 16 / 100 16. Identify the TRUE statement/s.Market liquidity can be affected by market-related events and company factors.There can be a price impact on mutual fund units due to liquidity demands from redemption or portfolio rebalancing. a) Only 2 is true b) Only 1 is true c) Both 1 and 2 are true d) Both 1 and 2 are false Explanation:Liquidity Risk is one of the general risk factor involved in Mutual Fund investments.The liquidity of investments made in the Scheme may be restricted by trading volumes, settlement periods and transfer procedures. Although the investment universe constitutes securities that will have high market liquidity, there is a possibility that market liquidity could get impacted on account of company/sector/general market-related events and there could be a price impact on account of portfolio rebalancing and/or liquidity demands on account of redemptions. 17 / 100 17. Which of these funds typically incurs a higher fund management cost? a) Active Equity Fund b) Passive Equity Fund c) Equity Index Fund d) Debt Fund Explanation:In Active Equity Funds the fund manager does a lot of buying / selling which result in higher transaction costs. Also a lot of research work goes into it. So the cost of fund management are higher.Equity Index Funds or Passive Equity funds invest in a portfolio that mimics a market index. There is no selection risk in index funds because the fund manager has no role in creating the portfolio. For this reason, the costs that an index fund is allowed to charge is also lower since there are no research or other fund management expenses. 18 / 100 18. Spot the information that is NOT included in the Statement of Additional Information (SAI). a) Rights of Unit-holders b) SIP returns of the schemes c) Investment Valuation Norms d) Transmission procedure Explanation:Statement of Additional Information (SAI), which has statutory information about the mutual fund or AMC, that is offering the scheme like the Constituents of the mutual fund, Rights of Unit-holders, Investment Valuation Norms, Rights of Unit-holders etc.It does not contain information on scheme returns etc. This information is available in the Mutual Fund Fact Sheet. 19 / 100 19. Identify the FALSE statement:According to AMFI guidelines, the intermediary does not have the right of appeal to AMFI.Mutual fund distributors are not solely responsible for spreading investor awareness. a) Only 2 is false b) Only 1 is false c) Both 1 and 2 are false Explanation:One of the role and function of AMFI is : To undertake a nationwide investor awareness programme to promote proper understanding of the concept and working of mutual funds.Thus, mutual fund distributors are not solely responsible for spreading investor awareness.As per the AMFI Guidelines & Norms for Intermediaries (AGNI), the intermediary has a right of appeal to AMFI. 20 / 100 20. Identify the false statement/s regarding a New Fund Offer (NFO).A Closed-ended mutual fund NFO will have an NFO opening date, an NFO closing date, and a scheme Re-opening date.An Open-ended mutual fund NFO will have an NFO opening date, an NFO closing date, and a scheme Re-opening date. a) Only 2 is false b) Only 1 is false c) Both 1 and 2 are false d) None of the above Explanation:A Closed-ended mutual fund will not have a Re-opening date. They offer liquidity through its listing on a stock exchange. Investors who which to invest or exit can do it through a stock exchange broker. 21 / 100 21. The most relevant factor for comparing the performance of liquid funds of a similar category offered by various mutual fund houses is ______. a) Expenses b) Current NAV c) Maturity d) Taxation Explanation:Comparing the Expense Ratio of different schemes is imperative for investors looking for the best liquid mutual fund. These schemes more or less earn similar returns. Hence, a fund with a high expense ratio will significantly reduce the returns generated.For example, suppose two funds deliver returns of 5% and 5.5%, respectively. Let’s say the expense ratio of the first fund is 0.2%, and the second fund is 0.8%. Therefore, the actual yield will be 4.8% and 4.7%. Hence, a fund with a lower expense ratio may be more profitable for an investor. 22 / 100 22. Which distribution channel among the ones listed is likely to sell funds exclusively from a single mutual fund house? a) Distribution Company b) Institutional sales team of the Asset Management Company c) Independent financial advisor d) Bank Explanation:An independent financial advisor, a bank or a distribution company will sell mutual fund schemes of various mutual fund houses as per their clients requirements and other considerations.However, an institutional sales team of an Asset Management Company will sell schemes only of the single mutual fund house which has appointed it. 23 / 100 23. An Asset Management Company (AMC) can recover investment management and advisory fees on the management of unclaimed amounts, _________. a) only on the actual expenses incurred in holding the funds b) No investment management and advisory fees can be charged on unclaimed amounts c) at a maximum rate of 0.50 percent per annum d) as per the fee applicable on the scheme from which the redemption was made Explanation:AMC is expected to make a continuous effort to remind the investors through letters to claim their uncliamed amounts.AMC can recover investment management and advisory fees on management of these unclaimed amounts, at a maximum rate of 0.50 percent per annum. 24 / 100 24. Determine the Average Holding Period when the Portfolio Turnover Ratio is 25 percent. a) 25 months b) 40 months c) 48 days d) 4 Years Explanation:Average Holding Period = 12 (months) / Portfolio Turnover RatioHere the portfolio turnover ratio is 25 percent i.e. 25/100 = 0.25Average Holding Period = 12 / 0.25 = 48 months = 4 Years 25 / 100 25. True or False: The opening of a timestamping machine needs to be documented and reported to the Asset Management Company (AMC). a) False b) True Explanation:The points of acceptance for mutual fund transactions have time stamping machines with tamper-proof seal.Opening the machine for repairs or maintenance is permitted only by vendors or nominated persons of the mutual fund. Such opening of the machine has to be properly documented and reported to the Trustees. 26 / 100 26. A top-performing scheme within a category _________. a) usually be the worst performer in the next years to come b) May or may not be the top performer in the next years to come c) Is the best choice for an investor to invest his funds d) usually remains the top performer for a long period of time Explanation:As experience has shown time and again, the top performers during one period may not necessarily remain as a top performer forever or near the other top performers. In such a case, simply buying into a scheme due to good returns in the recent past may not be a wise approach.The mutual fund advertisements use the disclaimer: “Past performance may or may not be sustained in future”. 27 / 100 27. An addendum must be issued for changes in _________. a) Fund Fact Sheet b) Statement of Additional Information (SAI) c) Half yearly results of the mutual fund d) Scheme Information Document (SID) Explanation:Updation of Scheme Documents—Regulatory provisions :In case of change in fundamental attributes in terms of Regulation, an addendum to the existing SID shall be issued and displayed on AMC website immediately.In case of other changes in SID, the AMC shall be required to issue an addendum and display the same on its website immediately. 28 / 100 28. Identify the FALSE statement/s.Arbitrage funds have lower risk as compared to Equity Funds.The main objective of an Arbitrage Fund is to provide capital appreciation.Arbitrage funds can invest in both Futures/Options (F&O) and cash markets. a) Both 2 and 3 are false b) Only 2 is false c) Both 1 and 3 are false d) Only 1 is false Explanation:Arbitrage Fund is nn open-ended scheme investing in arbitrage opportunities.Arbitrage funds work on the mispricing of equity shares in the spot and futures market. The fund manager simultaneously buys shares in the cash market and sells it in futures or derivatives markets. The difference in the cost price and the selling price is the return you earn.Their risk level is comparable with that of a pure debt fund. The returns from an Arbitrage fund is comparable to a debt fund. There is no capital appreciation. 29 / 100 29. For a Sectoral Fund, the minimum investment in equity and equity-related instruments of a specific sector of total assets should be ________. a) 80% b) 70% c) 65% d) 95% Explanation:Sectoral fund is an open-ended equity scheme investing in a specific sector such as bank; power etc.The minimum investment in equity and equity related instruments of a particular sector/ theme shall be 80 percent of total assets. 30 / 100 30. Mr. Tarun, in his 30s with a stable job, is investing the majority of his savings in bank deposits. Due to the low rate of return on these deposits, he is jeopardizing his financial goals. Which behavioral bias is evident in his portfolio? a) Herd mentality b) Confidence bias c) Familiarity bias d) Anchoring Explanation:The familiarity bias is when investors tend to invest in what they know and are comfortable with.An individual tends to prefer the familiar over the novel, as the popular proverb goes, “A known devil is better than an unknown angel.” This leads an investor to concentrate the investments in what is familiar, which at times prevents one from exploring better opportunities, as well as from a meaningful diversification. As a result, investors are not diversified across multiple sectors and types of investments. 31 / 100 31. Mutual fund distributors are assigned the ARN (AMFI Registration Number) by ______. a) NISM b) SEBI c) AMC d) AMFI Explanation:A major role of AMFI involves the registration of mutual fund distributors, by allotting them AMFI Registration Number (ARN), which is mandatory for becoming a mutual fund distributor. 32 / 100 32. SEBI has regulations regarding restrictions on the investment policies of mutual fund schemes to ensure that ______. a) The mutual fund scheme has a minimum diversification as per the requirements b) The scheme returns are better than the benchmark returns c) The scheme returns are better than the Nifty/Sensex d) The mutual scheme can improve their ratings over a period of time Explanation:The investors have no control, over the investment management of the mutual fund. It is in this context that SEBI has laid down regulations pertaining to investment universe, restrictions and portfolio diversification for investment by mutual fund schemes.Such regulations intend to control the risks taken by the mutual fund managers. 33 / 100 33. What is a drawback of company fixed deposits when compared to bank fixed deposits? a) Difficult to liquidate b) Lower safety c) Highly volatile d) Lower rate of interest Explanation:Company fixed deposits are considered to risky when compared to bank fixed deposits due to the credit risk. A company is a private entity and may default in payment of interest and principal amount. A bank is much more safer than a private company and so its fixed deposits are more safer to invest. 34 / 100 34. When a mutual fund distributor gets empaneled with an AMC, he/she has to sign a declaration for ______. a) declaring the rebates given back to the investors b) Guarantee of adding a minimum of 25 investors every month c) ensuring that all employees who are selling mutual funds will have more than on ARN code d) Commitment to abide by statutory codes, guidelines and circulars Explanation:As per the procedure for getting empaneled as a mutual fund distributor with AMC, one of the requirement is :The applicant needs to sign a declaration, which provides for the following –Commitment to abide by instructions given, as also statutory codes, guidelines and circulars. 35 / 100 35. If an investor needs to change their default account, they have to do it with ____. a) AMFI b) The mutual fund (AMC) directly c) Either KRA or AMFI d) The KYC Registration agency Explanation:Mutual funds provide investors the facility to register multiple bank accounts to facilitate receiving the redemption, dividends and any other payouts from the fund. An individual investor can register up to five bank accounts. One of the accounts is designated as the default account, and unless otherwise specified all credits are made to this account by the mutual fund.Investors can change the default bank account at any time by instructing the AMC to do so. 36 / 100 36. Who must contribute money to the mutual fund’s total amount among the mentioned entities? a) The Sponsors b) The Custodians c) The Trustees d) The Asset Management Company Explanation:The mutual fund trust is created by one or more Sponsors, who are the main persons behind the mutual fund business.The sponsor is the promoter of the mutual fund. The sponsor brings in capital and creates a mutual fund trust and sets up the AMC.The sponsor makes an application for registration of the mutual fund and contributes at least 40% of the net worth of the AMC. In other words, every MF needs a sponsor before it can commence operations. 37 / 100 37. True or False: Investors of the same age group should always have the same asset allocation in their investment portfolios. a) False b) True Explanation:Different investors have different financial goals at different age levels. In fact, investors in the same age group may also have different goals. Their financial situations may also differ.At the same time, many of the financial goals may pertain to the whole families and not just an individual. In such cases, it may not be prudent to categorize investors on the basis of age alone. 38 / 100 38. Which of these investors is NOT allowed to make cash investments in mutual funds up to a limit of Rs. 50,000? a) Investments made by minors b) Investments made by a PIO (Person of Indian Origin) c) Investments made by Sole Proprietorship firm d) Investments made by resident Indian investors without PAN Explanation:Mutual funds usually do not accept cash. Small investors, who may not be taxpayers and may not have PAN/bank accounts, such as farmers, small traders/businessmen/workers are allowed cash transactions for the purchase of units in mutual funds to the extent of Rs. 50,000/-per investor, per mutual fund, per financial year.This facility is available only for resident individuals, sole proprietorships and minors investing through their guardians.PIO is not among the eligible investors. 39 / 100 39. How can the fundamental attributes of a mutual fund scheme be altered? a) The fundamental attributes can be changed but only with the consent of 100 percent of unit holders b) The fundamental attributes cannot be changed c) The fundamental attributes can be changed with the permission of SEBI and AMFI d) The fundamental attributes can be changed but this should be communicated to all the unit holders who should be provided an option to exit the scheme Explanation:As per the rights and responsibilities of Trustees –The trustees shall not permit a change in the fundamental attributes of the scheme, the trust or fees and expenses or any other change that will affect the interests of the unitholders unless written communication is sent to each unitholder, a notice is given in the newspaper with national circulation and the unitholders are given the option to exit at NAV without paying an exit load. 40 / 100 40. Redemption proceeds must be paid to the mutual fund unit holders within the time specified by ______ from time to time. a) AMFI b) SEBI c) Ministry of Finance d) Registrar of Companies Explanation:The applicable redemption guidelines for mutual funds are set out in SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996 and as amended from time to time. 41 / 100 41. Ms. Shweta buys 5000 units of a mutual fund scheme through a distributor at an NAV of Rs 30. The current NAV is Rs 28. What will be the trail commission for today, assuming a trail commission rate of 1% per annum? a) Rs. 7.2256 b) Rs. 13.8356 c) Rs. 3.8356 d) Rs. 26.7463 Explanation:Trail commission is always calculated on the current NAV.The current total value of investments in the above question is Rs. 28 X 5000 units = Rs. 1,40.000Trail commission for the day = Current value X trail commission rate p.a./365= 1,40,000 X 1% / 365 days= 1400 / 365 = Rs. 3.8356 42 / 100 42. The mutual fund scheme should have a minimum of ______ investors. a) 20 investors b) 10 investors c) 50 investors d) 100 investors Explanation:Every mutual fund scheme/plan should have a minimum of 20 investors and no single investor shall account for more than 25 percent of the corpus of the Scheme/Plan(s). 43 / 100 43. What is the Source Scheme in a Systematic Transfer Plan? a) It is the scheme with the lower NAV b) It is the scheme from which funds are transferred c) It is the scheme with the higher NAV d) It is the scheme to which funds are transferred Explanation:In a Systematic Transfer Plan (STP), the amount that is withdrawn from a scheme (called the source scheme) is re-invested in some other scheme (called the target scheme) of the same mutual fund. 44 / 100 44. The investment objective of a ______ is to pursue capital appreciation. a) Growth Fund b) Liquid Fund c) Arbitrage Fund d) Income Fund Explanation:A Growth fund is a mutual fund which invests in the stocks and aims at achieving capital appreciation through the investment of funds in growth stocks. 45 / 100 45. Who oversees the contributions from investors and makes investment decisions in a mutual fund company? a) The Trustees b) The Investors c) The Sponsors d) The Asset Management Company (AMC) Explanation:Fund management is the most critical function in an Asset Management Company. The main function of this team is to invest the investors’ money in line with the stated objective of the scheme and to manage the same effectively. 46 / 100 46. When does the market price of a closed-end mutual fund scheme align with the NAV (Net Asset Value) price? a) During the New Fund Offer b) Before the New Fund Offer c) Toward maturity d) It never converges Explanation:A close-ended scheme offers liquidity through its listing on a stock exchange.Typically, towards the maturity of the scheme, the market price converges towards the NAV. 47 / 100 47. What is needed for the termination of the services of an Asset Management Company (AMC)? a) 75 % of the mutual funds distributors should approve the termination of the Asset Management Company b) AMFI should approve the termination of the Asset Management Company c) The custodian should approve the termination of the Asset Management Company d) 75 % of the unitholders should approve the termination of the Asset Management Company Explanation:The appointment of the AMC for the Mutual Fund can be terminated by majority of the Directors of the Trustee Board or by 75 percent of the Unitholders of the Scheme. 48 / 100 48. Identify the correct statement regarding ‘Jensen’s Alpha’ of a mutual fund scheme. a) It is a measure of simple outperformance, irrespective of the risk taken b) It is a measure of risk and outperformance is related to returns c) It is a measure of outperformance after adjusting for the risk taken d) None of the above Explanation:Jensen’s Alpha is used to determine the abnormal return of a security or portfolio of securities over the theoretical expected return.It is a risk-adjusted performance measure that represents the average return on a portfolio or investment, above or below that predicted by the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), given the portfolio’s or investment’s beta and the average market return. 49 / 100 49. In which of the following scenarios can Goods and Service Tax (GST) be levied on the mutual fund scheme in addition to the Total Expense Ratio of the scheme? a) GST applicable on distributor commission only can be charged to the scheme over and above the Total Expense Ratio b) GST applicable on any fees must be within the Total Expense Ratio c) GST applicable on AMC fees only can be charged to the scheme over and above the Total Expense Ratio d) GST applicable on AMC fees as well as distributor commission can be charged to the scheme over and above the Total Expense Ratio Explanation:AMC(s) can charge GST, as per applicable Taxation Laws, to the schemes within the limits prescribed under SEBI (Mutual Fund) Regulations.– GST on fees paid on investment management and advisory fees shall be charged to the scheme in addition to the overall limits specified as per the Total Expense Ratio (TER) provisions.– The commission payable to the distributors of mutual funds may be subject to GST, as applicable in case of the ARN holder. Such tax cannot be charged to the scheme. 50 / 100 50. Which of the following functions can an Asset Management Company (AMC) handle internally (in-house)? a) Registrar and Transfer Agent b) Custodial Services c) Broking Explanation:The appointment of Registrar and Transfer Agent (RTA) is done by the AMC. However, It is not compulsory to appoint an RTA. The AMC can choose to handle this activity in-house.AMC cannot be a custodian or a broker. An independent custodian ensures that the securities are indeed held in the scheme for the benefit of investors, which is an important control aspect. 51 / 100 51. The denominator in the calculation of the Sharpe Ratio is the risk premium, which is the difference between the return from the fund and the risk-free rate. a) 0.75 b) 9 c) 7 d) 0.4 Explanation:In a fraction – Eg. 21 / 38 , the number above the line (21) is called the Numerator and the number below the line (the bottom number 38) is called the DenominatorThe formula for Sharpe Ratio is : ( Return Earned – Risk free Return ) / Standard DeviationHere the Numerator is ‘Return Earned – Risk free Return’ and the Denominator is ‘Standard Deviation’So the Denominator is the Standard Deviation which is given as 0.75 52 / 100 52. Once the mutual fund units are pledged, the unit holder/s _______. a) Can sell the units bit after a period of 3 months b) Cannot sell the units but can switch the units to another scheme c) Cannot sell the units d) Cannot do additional purchase in the same account Explanation:Banks, NBFCs and other financiers often lend money against the pledge of Units by the Unitholder.Once units are pledged, the Unit-holder/s cannot sell or switch out the pledged units, until the pledgee gives a written no-objection to release the pledge. 53 / 100 53. In case one of the joint holders dies, the units will _________. a) be transferred to nominee/s b) continue to be held by surviving joint holders c) be transferred to the HUF of deceased holder Explanation:Transmission is the process of transferring units to the person entitled to receive them in the event of the death of the unitholder.In case of joint holding, if the first holder passes away, the second holder is substituted as the first holder. 54 / 100 54. Which of this information is not included in the Scheme Information Document (SID)? a) Investment objective of the scheme b) Risk factors of the scheme c) Portfolio features d) Names of securities in the scheme's portfolio Explanation: 55 / 100 55. This statement best describes the “investment limit” of the mutual fund scheme. a) Investment Interes b) Investment Objective c) Investment Policy d) Investment Strategy Explanation: 56 / 100 56. Identify the TRUE statement. A) While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an entry load, then the initial value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV minus Entry Load. B) While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an exit load, then the later value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV minus Exit Load. a) Only B is true b) Only A is true c) Both A and B are true Explanation:If there is an Entry load on a mutual fund scheme then while calculating the scheme returns, the initial value of the net asset value (NAV) is taken as NAV PLUS entry load as the purchase value increases due to entry load.If there is an exit load on a scheme then while calculating the scheme returns, the later value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV minus the exit load as the sale value decreases due to the exit load. 57 / 100 57. Identify the TRUE statement/s with respect to the risks associated with short selling and stock lending.There is counterparty risk and liquidity risk in short selling.There is no risk associated with stock lending as the transaction is done through an approved intermediary. a) Only 1 is true b) Only 2 is true c) Both 1 and 2 are true Explanation:Short-selling is the sale of shares or securities that the seller does not own at the time of trading. Instead, he borrows it from someone who already owns it. Later, the short seller buys back the stock/security he shorted and returns the stock/security to the lender to close out the loan. The inherent risks are Counterparty risk and liquidity risk of the stock/security being borrowed. The security being short sold might be illiquid or become illiquid and covering of the security might occur at a much higher price level than anticipated, leading to losses.Securities Lending is lending of securities through an approved intermediary to a borrower under an agreement for a specified period with the condition that the borrower will return equivalent securities of the same type or class at the end of the specified period along with the corporate benefits accruing on the securities borrowed. There are risks inherent in securities lending, including the risk of failure of the other party. Such failure can result in a possible loss of rights to the collateral, the inability of the approved intermediary to return the securities deposited by the lender and the possible loss of corporate benefits accruing thereon. 58 / 100 58. ______ is NOT accepted as a photo identity document for Micro SIP. a) Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN) card issued to National Pension System (NPS) b) Credit card c) Employee ID cards issued by companies registered with the Registrar of Companies d) Debit card with a photo Explanation:Credit card is not accepted because it may not be backed up by a bank account. 59 / 100 59. Identify the TRUE statement/s:The Beta of a diversified stock index is greater than 1.An investment with a beta of 0.8 will move 8 percent when markets move by 10%.Beta as a measure of risk is relevant only for equity schemes. a) Only 1 and 2 are true b) Only 1 and 3 are true c) Only 2 and 3 are true d) All 1, 2 and 3 are true Explanation:Beta measures the fluctuation in periodic returns in a scheme, as compared to fluctuation in periodic returns of a diversified stock index (representing the market) over the same period.The diversified stock index, by definition, has a Beta of 1. Companies or schemes, whose beta is more than 1, are seen as riskier than the market. Beta less than 1 is indicative of a company or scheme that is less risky than the market.An investment with a beta of 0.8 will move 8 percent when markets move by 10 percent. This applies to increase as well as fall in values. An investment with a beta of 1.2 will move by 12 percent both on the upside and downside when markets move (up/down) by 10 percent.Beta as a measure of risk is relevant only for equity schemes. 60 / 100 60. The Net Asset Value (NAV) of a segregated portfolio has to be declared on a ________. a) Weekly basis (on every Saturday) after the credit event b) Daily basis after the credit event c) NAV need not be declared d) Monthly basis after the credit event Explanation:To ensure fair treatment to all investors in case of a credit event and to deal with the liquidity risk, in December 2018, SEBI permitted creation of segregated portfolio of debt and money market instruments by mutual funds schemes. “Segregated portfolio” means a portfolio, comprising of debt or money market instrument affected by a credit event, that has been segregated in a mutual fund scheme.The Net Asset Value (NAV) of the segregated portfolio shall be declared on a daily basis. 61 / 100 61. Identify the FALSE statement :A. When the mutual fund distributor understands the needs of his investor, one can ignore the investment objective of the mutual fund schemesB. The best strategy in selecting a mutual fund scheme is that based on its past performance a) Only B is false b) Only A is false c) Both A and B are false d) None of the above Explanation:Experience has shown time and again, the top performers during one period may not necessarily remain as a top performer forever or near the other top performers and vice versa. In such a case, simply buying into a scheme due to good returns in the recent past may not be a wise approach.In order to evaluate various mutual fund schemes, it is important to consider the scheme’s investment objective and strategy. Both of these can help one understand what to expect from the scheme. The suitability of a mutual fund scheme to an investor depends upon the features of the scheme and matching it to the needs of the investor from the investment. Therefore, one cannot ignore the investment objectives of the scheme. 62 / 100 62. What occurs in the process of Indexation? a) In indexation, the cost of acquisition is adjusted upwards to reflect the impact of inflation b) In indexation, the impact of capital gains tax is reduced in case of both short term and long term capital gains c) In indexation, the mutual fund’s performance is benchmarked against a suitable index d) None of the above Explanation:Indexation means that the cost of acquisition or the cost of purchase is adjusted upwards to reflect the impact of inflation. 63 / 100 63. Under which of the following circumstances can a mutual fund impose an additional expense of 0.30% of daily net assets of the scheme? a) When the new inflows from beyond top 30 cities is at least 10% of the gross new inflows b) When the new inflows from beyond top 25 cities is at least 30% of the gross new inflows c) When the new inflows from beyond top 15 cities is at least 20% of the gross new inflows d) When the new inflows from beyond top 30 cities is at least i) 30% of the gross new inflows in the scheme OR ii) 15% of the average AUM (Year To Date) of the scheme, which ever is higher Explanation:In addition to the regular limits, the following expenses may be charged to the scheme:i. Brokerage and transaction cost which are incurred for the purpose of execution of trade up to 0.12 percent of trade value in case of cash market transactions and 0.05 percent of trade value in case of derivatives transactions.ii. If the new inflows from beyond top 30 cities are at least a) 30 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or b) 15 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher, funds can charge the additional expense of up to 0.30 percent of the daily net assets of the scheme. 64 / 100 64. The portfolio of a fund of funds consists of ________. a) Units of other mutual fund schemes b) Debt securities only c) Money market securities only d) Equity securities only Explanation:A ‘Fund Of Funds’ (FOF) is an investment strategy of holding a portfolio of other investment funds rather than investing directly in stocks, bonds or other securities. An FOF Scheme of a primarily invests in the units of another Mutual Fund scheme. 65 / 100 65. ________ would not be an originator to a special purpose vehicle, in the case of securitized assets. a) Non-banking finance company b) A Commercial Bank c) Housing finance company d) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Explanation:A securitization transaction involves sale of receivables by the originator (a commercial bank, non-banking finance company, housing finance company, or a manufacturing/service company) to a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), typically set up in the form of a trust. Investors are issued rated Pass Through Certificates (PTCs), the proceeds of which are paid as consideration to the originator. (RBI will not be an originator)In this manner, the originator, by selling his loan receivables to an SPV, receives consideration from investors much before the maturity of the underlying loans. 66 / 100 66. Identify the FALSE statement/s with respect to benchmarks for mutual fund schemes. A. A Multi-Cap fund can have Nifty 500 index as its benchmark. B. A Multi-Cap fund can have BSE Sensex as its benchmark. a) Only A is false b) Only B is false c) Both A and B are false d) None of the above Explanation:A Multi-Cap fund invests in Large Cap, Mid Cap and Small Cap stocks as per proportions stipuated by SEBI.The Nifty500 index represents top 100 large cap companies, top 150 Mid-cap companies and top 150 small cap companies. Therefore, it can be a good benchmark for a Multi-Cap fund.The BSE Sesex has 30 large cap stocks from various sectors and it can be good benchmark for a large cap fund and not for a multi cap fund. 67 / 100 67. Which of these statements is true regarding Key Information Memorandum (KIM)? a) KIM is a document that provides key information of the past performance of the scheme b) KIM provided NAV history of all mutual fund schemes c) KIM is the annual newsletter of the mutual fund d) KIM is a document which must accompany all mutual fund application forms Explanation:While an investor is expected to read all the scheme related documents, circulation of the same along with the application forms is too difficult and costly, especially if the printed forms are to be distributed.In order to ensure the investor gets access to sufficient information in spite of such a constraint, a Key Information Memorandum (KIM) is mandatorily circulated along with the application form. 68 / 100 68. Where is the performance data for all schemes across the mutual fund industry accessible? a) Key Information Memorandum (KIM) b) AMFI Website c) The Scheme Information Document (SID) d) The Fund Fact Sheet Explanation:Each AMC is required to publish a scheme performance dashboard on its website, and update it on a regular basis. The scheme performance data is also available on the AMFI websiteAMFI website (www.amfiindia.com) carries the performance data of all the mutual fund schemes.This is an exhaustive resource and one can access the same for various different periods, and fund categories. 69 / 100 69. _______ is not part of the fundamental attributes of a mutual fund scheme. a) Liquidity provisions such as listing, repurchase, redemption b) Any safety net or guarantee provided c) Exit loads d) Aggregate fees and expenses charged to the scheme Explanation:Within the SID, there is an important section on fundamental attributes of a scheme with following parameters :1. Type of a scheme2. Investment Objective3. Terms of IssueExit loads do not form a part of the fundamental attributes of a mutual fund scheme. 70 / 100 70. Usually, most investors might have invested across various asset categories. However, the problem with such asset allocation is that _______. a) such asset allocation earns low returns b) such asset allocation increases the portfolio risk c) such asset allocation is done without defining any objective or without any process d) such asset allocation leads to payment of additional taxes Explanation:The basic meaning of asset allocation is to allocate an investor’s money across asset categories in order to achieve some objective. In reality, most investors’ portfolios would have the money allocated across various asset categories. However, in many such cases, the same may be done without any process or rationale behind it.Asset Allocation is a process of allocating money across various asset categories in line with a stated objective. The underlined words are very important. First, it is a “process”, which always involves several steps, and those steps should not be ignored or skipped. Second, the whole idea behind asset allocation is to achieve some objective. Whichever approach one selects, one must go through the steps of the process in order to achieve the objective. 71 / 100 71. To whom does the compliance requirement under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) apply? a) Only on those mutual funds who have foreign institutions as their sponsors b) Only Indian mutual funds c) Only on those mutual funds who are registered with a foreign agency d) All financial institutions including mutual funds Explanation:The Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) is a US law that aims to combat tax evasion by US persons opening accounts offshore. It enhances due diligence and information reporting requirements for both individual and entity accounts. On July 9, 2015, India signed Inter-Governmental Agreement (IGA) with the USA for implementation of FATCA.This is applicable to all financial institutions including mutual funds.To comply with the requirements of the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) and Common Reporting Standards (CRS) provisions, financial institutions, including mutual funds, are required to undertake a due diligence process to identify foreign reportable accounts and collect such information as required under the said provisions and report the same to the US Internal Revenue Service/any other foreign government or to the Indian Tax Authorities for onward transmission to the concerned foreign authorities. 72 / 100 72. These debt mutual funds have been arranged from lowest risk to highest risk. Identify the risk which we are discussing:Liquid Funds 2. Money market funds 3. Medium-term bond funds a) Concentration Risk b) Interest Rate Risk c) Credit Risk d) Default Risk Explanation:Interest rate risk is the risk that an investment’s value will change as a result of a change in interest rates.The interest rate risk varies for bonds with different maturities. Those with longer maturity would witness higher price fluctuations in comparison to those with shorter maturities.Similarly short term debt funds will have lower interest rate risk when compared to longer term debt funds.In the above question, Liquid funds have the shortest duration and so will have less adverse effect of interest rate risk when compared to Money market funds and Medium term bond funds. 73 / 100 73. Identify the TRUE statement – A. It is mandatory for the AMC to disclose the valuation policy. B. The AMC is not accountable for policies and procedures for detecting and preventing incorrect valuation. a) Only B is true b) Only A is true c) Both A and B are true d) None of the above Explanation:Disclosure of the valuation policy and procedures approved by the Board of the AMC shall be made in Statement of Additional Information, on the website of the AMC to ensure transparency of valuation norms to be adopted by asset management company.The responsibility of true and fairness of valuation and correct NAV shall be of the Asset Management Company, irrespective of disclosure of the approved valuation policies and procedures. 74 / 100 74. Identify the true statement(s): A) A systematic transaction cannot be canceled. B) Assuming a mutual fund scheme is profitable, investors can keep encashing some profits through a Systematic Withdrawal Plan. a) Only B is true b) Only A is true c) Both A and B are true Explanation:1. A systematic transaction (like SIP etc) can be stopped.2. Assuming the scheme is profitable, the re-purchase ensures that some of the profits are being regularly encashed by the investor. 75 / 100 75. Indicate the sequence of funds from the lowest to highest risk: A) Liquid Fund B) Credit Risk Fund C) Corporate Bond Fund a) A – C – B b) B – C – A c) A – B – C d) C – A – B Explanation:Liquid funds are least risky as they invest in high quality debt instruements.Corporate Bond Funds are little more risky as they predominantly invest in AA+ and above rated corporate bonds.Credit Risk Funds are much more risky as they invest in below highest rated corporate bonds. The minimum investment in corporate bonds shall be 65 percent of total assets only in AA (excludes AA+ rated corporate bonds) and below rated corporate bonds. 76 / 100 76. AMFI Code of Ethics states that _______ cannot become a distributor of mutual funds. a) Banks b) Empanelled distributors c) HNIs d) Employees of AMC Explanation:Employees of Asset Management Companies (AMCs) cannot become mutual fund distributors. 77 / 100 77. An investor buys 5000 units of a mutual fund scheme through a distributor at an NAV of Rs 25. The current NAV is Rs 43. What will be the trail commission for today if the trail commission rate is 1% per annum? a) Rs. 5.8904 b) Rs. 33.1854 c) Rs. 3.4246 d) Rs. 2150 Explanation:rail commission is always calculated on the current NAV.The current total value of investments in the above question is Rs. 43 X 5000 units = Rs. 2,15.000Trail commission for the day = Current value X trail commission rate p.a./365= 215000 X 1% / 365 days= 2150 / 365 = Rs. 5.8904 78 / 100 78. Rising Sun Mutual Fund holds shares of AAA Ltd. in its portfolio. When the NAV of the scheme is calculated on 10th April, then each share of AAA Ltd. will be valued at ______. a) Average traded price of AAA Ltd. on 10th April across all stock exchanges b) Average traded price of AAA Ltd. on 10th April at BSE / NSE c) Opening price of AAA Ltd. on 10th April at BSE / NSE d) Closing price of AAA Ltd. on 10th April at BSE / NSE Explanation:As per the SEBI rules of valuation for equity shares : The securities shall be valued at the last quoted closing price on the stock exchange.(When the securities are traded on more than one recognised stock exchange, the securities shall be valued at the last quoted closing price on the stock exchange where the security is principally traded. It would be left to the asset management company to select the appropriate stock exchange) 79 / 100 79. According to guidelines given by SEBI, every mutual fund scheme should have a minimum of ____ investors a) 25 b) 20 c) 10 d) 50 Explanation:Every mutual fund scheme/plan should have a minimum of 20 investors and no single investor shall account for more than 25 percent of the corpus of the Scheme/Plan(s). 80 / 100 80. Identify the TRUE statements with respect to the Transmission of mutual fund units: A) Before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will insist on an indemnity against future problems for the mutual fund arising out of the transfer. B) Before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will insist on the death certificate of the deceased unit-holder. C) Before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will insist on the KYC documentation from the nominee. a) A and B are true b) All A, B and C are true c) B and C are true d) A and C are true Explanation:Transmission is the process of transferring units to the person entitled to receive it in the event of the death of the unit holder.In case of transmission, before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will insist on the KYC documentation from the nominee, death certificate of the deceased unit-holder, and an indemnity against future problems for the mutual fund arising out of the transfer. 81 / 100 81. Smita is a young investor, and her parents advise her to invest in fixed deposits of banks so that these funds can be used for her retirement. If Smita follows her parents’ advice, what risk does she face? a) There is no risk as fixed deposits are quiet safe b) She has to select the correct bank which is financially strong c) There is a risk of low returns d) There is a high risk of default in her portfolio Explanation:Fixed deposits usually give a low rate of return and when adjusted against inflation, the return can sometimes be very low or even negative. This will not help in building her retirement corpus.Smita is a young investor and has plenty of time in her hand. So she should invest in growth stocks / equity mutual funds rather than fixed deposits. 82 / 100 82. Mr. Mohit has filled up an application form for subscribing to a mutual fund scheme. However, the address mentioned in the application form is different from the address provided at the time of KYC compliance. Which address will be included in the mutual fund’s records once the KYC compliance is validated? a) Mr. Mohit can indicate which address is correct b) The address provided in the application form c) The address provided in the application form will be used for all communications d) The address provided for KYC compliance Explanation:Once the first holder’s PAN is validated for KYC, the address provided in the KYC form will override the information provided in the application form. 83 / 100 83. Which of these statements are TRUE with respect to time stamping on mutual fund documents? A) Time stamping is relevant for non-financial mutual fund transactions. B) The daily time stamping of application does not start with serial 1. C) Breakdown of the time stamping process or breaking of the seal is mandated to be duly recorded and reported to the Trustees. a) A and C are true b) B and C are true c) A and B are true d) A, B and C are true Explanation:1) Applications for non-financial transactions like change of address are stamped. However, here stamping of time is not relevant; the data stamping is pertinent.2) Applications are sequentially numbered from the first number of the machine to the last number of the machine, before a new numbering cycle is started for the machine. The daily time stamping of application does not start with serial 1.3) The points of acceptance have time stamping machines with tamper-proof seal. Opening the machine for repairs or maintenance is permitted only by vendors or nominated persons of the mutual fund. Such opening of the machine has to be properly documented and reported to the Trustees. 84 / 100 84. Investors who have not transacted during the previous ______ are known as dormant investors. a) 6 months b) 12 months c) 15 months d) 9 months Explanation:Dormant means not-active.Investors who have not transacted during the previous 6 months in a mutual fund are considered dormant investors. 85 / 100 85. Identify the TRUE statement – a) Once an investor had invested through a distributor, he cannot invest directly with the mutual fund house b) Once an investor had invested through a distributor, he cannot change the distributor c) The mutual fund investor has the complete freedom to change the distributor any time he wants d) Once an investor had invested by online method, he cannot change the distributor Explanation:Investors can choose to change their distributor or opt for direct investing.This needs to be done through a written request by the investor. In such cases, AMCs will need to comply,without insisting on any kind of ‘No Objection Certificate’ from the existing distributor. 86 / 100 86. Long-term capital loss from an investment can be set off against _____. a) short term capital gains only b) long term capital loss cannot be set off c) long term capital gains only d) short term capital gain or long term capital gain Explanation:As per the Income Tax Act –– Short term capital loss is to be set off against short term capital gain or long term capital gain.– Long term capital loss can only be set off against long term capital gain.– Capital loss, short term or long term, cannot be set off against any other head of income (e.g. salaries). 87 / 100 87. The NAV of an equity fund is Rs. 76.45, and the face value is Rs. 10. An investor invests Rs 30,000. How many units will be allotted to him? (There is no entry load) a) 1866.43 b) 3000 c) 477 d) 392.41 Explanation:Units are allotted as per the current NAV.The amount invested divided by the NAV will give the units allotted.Rs 30,000 / 76.45 = 392.41 88 / 100 88. Who utilizes the information collected under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA)? a) Indian Tax authorities b) Foreign Government or foreign agencies c) Indian Government d) All of the above Explanation:To comply with the requirements of Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) and Common Reporting Standards (CRS) provisions, financial institutions, including mutual funds, are required to undertake due diligence process to identify foreign reportable accounts and collect such information as required under the said provisions and report the same to the US Internal Revenue Service/any other foreign government or to the Indian Govt / Tax Authorities for onward transmission to the concerned foreign authorities. 89 / 100 89. Which of these entities can invest in Indian mutual funds?An ongoing bond fund will lose value when the interest rates in the market ______ . a) A and B b) Only C c) All A, B and C d) B and C Explanation:All of the above can invest in Indian mutual funds. 90 / 100 90. The expenses of _______ cannot be charged to a mutual fund scheme. a) software development b) registrar services for transfer of units sold c) GST – Goods and Service tax d) custodian fees Explanation:The expenses on software development is not for a particular scheme but for the AMC as a whole and cannot be charged to a particular scheme. 91 / 100 91. _______ ensures that the information contained in the scheme-related documents (SID and SAI) is fully complied with. a) The AMC b) The Trustees c) The Sponsor d) The Sponsor The Fund Manager Explanation:The trustees shall ensure that all transactions entered into by the AMC are in compliance with the regulations and the scheme’s objectives and intent. 92 / 100 92. Identify the FALSE statement(s) – A) For Index funds, the NAV is calculated up to 4 decimal points. B) The AMC and a mutual fund scheme of the AMC can have the same auditor. a) Only A is false b) Only B is false c) Both A and B are false Explanation:NAV is to be calculated upto 4 decimal places in the case of index funds, liquid funds and other debt funds.Accounts of the mutual fund schemes need to be maintained independent of the accounts of the AMC. The auditor appointed to audit the mutual fund scheme accounts needs to be different from the auditor of the AMC. 93 / 100 93. Identify the false statement(s). A) When an investor wants to redeem from a scheme, the distributor must suggest redemption from the scheme with the maximum exit load. B) The mutual fund distributors can ignore the impact of exit load at the time of repurchase. a) Only statement B is false b) Only statement A is false c) Both statements A and B are false Explanation:Both taxes and loads reduce investment returns. Therefore, it is important for the distributor to consider these two aspects during repurchases/redemptions. This means that when there is a need to withdraw money from a scheme, the distributor must assess the implications of capital gains tax and exit loads.When an investor wants to redeem from a scheme, the distributor must suggest redemption from the scheme with the minimum exit load. 94 / 100 94. Identify the False statement/s. A. Valuation gains are ignored, but valuation losses need to be adjusted against the profits while calculating distributable surplus. B. The Mark-to-market gains form a part of the distributable reserves in the case of mutual fund Income Distribution Cum Capital Withdrawal plan. a) Only B is false b) Only A is false c) Both A and B are false Explanation:SEBI guidelines stipulate dividends can be paid out of distributable reserves.Mark-to-market gains are on paper – they are not realised. They will be realized when those investments are sold. So these cannot be included in distributable reservesAlso Valuation gains are ignored. But valuation losses need to be adjusted against the profits.This conservative approach to calculating distributable reserves ensures that dividend is paid out of real and realized profits, after providing for all possible losses. 95 / 100 95. Which document is used by fund rating agencies and also by investors to check the performance of various schemes of a mutual fund? a) Key Information Memorandum (KIM) b) Annual accounts of the AMC c) Scheme Information Document (SID) d) Fund Fact Sheet Explanation:One of the most popular documents from the mutual fund is the monthly Fund Factsheet. This document is extensively used by investors, fund distributors, fund rating agencies, research analysts, media and others to access information about the various schemes of the mutual fund. 96 / 100 96. The compliance requirements under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) applies only to mutual funds and not to other financial institutions – State whether True or False ? a) False b) True Explanation:The (FATCA) is a US law that aims to combat tax evasion by US persons opening accounts offshore. It enhances due diligence and information reporting requirements for both individual and entity accounts. On July 9, 2015, India signed Inter-Governmental Agreement (IGA) with the USA for implementation of FATCA.This is applicable to all financial institutions including mutual funds. 97 / 100 97. For a Sector Fund, the minimum investment in equity and equity related instruments of a particular sector/ theme shall be 90 percent of total assets. State whether True or False? a) True b) False Explanation:Sectoral fund is an open-ended equity scheme investing in a specific sector such as bank; power etc.The minimum investment in equity and equity related instruments of a particular sector/ theme shall be 80 percent of total assets. 98 / 100 98. Liquid Fund is an open-ended liquid scheme whose investment is in debt and money market securities with a maturity of up to 91 days only. a) 99 b) 75 c) 51 d) 91 Explanation:Liquid Fund is an open-ended liquid scheme whose investment is into debt and money market securities with a maturity of up to 91 days only.An investor seeking the lowest risk ought to go for a liquid scheme. However, the returns in such instruments are low. These schemes are suitable for investors looking for a product to park their funds for very short periods (up to 91 days). 99 / 100 99. Identify the action that needs to be taken as per the AMFI Code of Ethics for Mutual Funds when a mutual fund enters into a transaction for the purchase or sale of securities with any of its associates? a) AMC should justify the fairness of the transaction to the Board of Trustees b) AMC should make certain that the transactions happens at a price that is better than the closing market price c) AMC should inform the mutual fund unitholders of the intent to undertake the transaction before it is done d) AMC should take the approval of the trustees before undertaking the transactions Explanation:As per the AMFI Code of Ethics for Mutual Funds :Members shall in respect of transactions of purchase and sale of securities entered into with any of their associates or any significant unitholder :1. Submit to the Board of Trustees details of such transactions, justifying its fairness to the scheme2. Disclose to the unitholders details of the transaction in brief through annual and half yearly reports 100 / 100 100. The additional Total Expense Ratio (TER) charged has to be credited back to the Mutual Fund if the inflows from beyond the top 30 cities are redeemed within a period of 1 year from the date of investment. State whether True or False? a) False b) True Explanation:Mutual funds can charge additional TER if the new inflows are from beyond top 30 cities (subject to some conditions).However, the additional TER on account of inflows from beyond the top 30 cities so charged shall be credited back to the scheme in case the said inflows are redeemed within a period of 1 year from the date of investment. Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit