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NISM Series V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors 'Last Day Revision' Test 2

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NISM Series V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors ‘Last Day Revision’ Test 2

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1.

An ongoing bond fund will lose value when the interest rates in the market ______ .

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2.

The difference between the yield on Gilt and the yield on a non-Government Debt security is called its ______ .

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3.

When a mutual fund scheme generates profits or incurs losses, these profits and losses belong to _______ .

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4. A fundamental analyst will study the Candle-Stick charts and also the financial statement of a company. State whether True or False?

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5. The return from a mutual fund scheme is 8.3% and the Standard Deviation is 0.6. The risk-free rate of return is 5%. Calculate the Sharpe ratio.

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6.

Ms. Apeksha puts Rs 2 crore into a Gilt scheme at 2 pm using a local cheque. What is the relevant NAV (Net Asset Value) for getting units assigned?

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7.

The trustees of a mutual fund are chosen by the ______.

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8.

How can a mutual fund distributor’s approval be ended?

9 / 100

9.

Which of the following is NOT RIGHT regarding Mutual Funds advertisements by AMCs?

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10.

If a mutual fund makes a deal to buy or sell securities with any of its associates, the members of the Asset Management Company of the mutual fund must _________.

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11.

Spot the incorrect statement – –

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12.

Risk profilers are utilized to determine an investor’s risk appetite. Is this statement true or false?

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13.

Which of the following statements is correct for a mutual fund scheme’s monthly income distribution cum capital withdrawal plan (IDCW)?

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14. Identify the incorrect statement/s. A. NRIs can make investments in mutual funds on a repatriable basis. B. The mutual fund will automatically pay in Dollars when the NRI redeems investments made on a repatriable basis.

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15.

In which of these situations does the Mutual Fund have to credit back the additional Total Expense Ratio (TER) charged?

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16.

Identify the TRUE statement/s.

  1. Market liquidity can be affected by market-related events and company factors.
  2. There can be a price impact on mutual fund units due to liquidity demands from redemption or portfolio rebalancing.

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17.

Which of these funds typically incurs a higher fund management cost?

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18.

Spot the information that is NOT included in the Statement of Additional Information (SAI).

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19. Identify the FALSE statement:

  1. According to AMFI guidelines, the intermediary does not have the right of appeal to AMFI.
  2. Mutual fund distributors are not solely responsible for spreading investor awareness.

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20.

Identify the false statement/s regarding a New Fund Offer (NFO).

  1. A Closed-ended mutual fund NFO will have an NFO opening date, an NFO closing date, and a scheme Re-opening date.
  2. An Open-ended mutual fund NFO will have an NFO opening date, an NFO closing date, and a scheme Re-opening date.

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21.

The most relevant factor for comparing the performance of liquid funds of a similar category offered by various mutual fund houses is ______.

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22.

Which distribution channel among the ones listed is likely to sell funds exclusively from a single mutual fund house?

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23.

An Asset Management Company (AMC) can recover investment management and advisory fees on the management of unclaimed amounts, _________.

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24.

Determine the Average Holding Period when the Portfolio Turnover Ratio is 25 percent.

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25.

True or False: The opening of a timestamping machine needs to be documented and reported to the Asset Management Company (AMC).

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26.

A top-performing scheme within a category _________.

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27.

An addendum must be issued for changes in _________.

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28. Identify the FALSE statement/s.

  1. Arbitrage funds have lower risk as compared to Equity Funds.
  2. The main objective of an Arbitrage Fund is to provide capital appreciation.
  3. Arbitrage funds can invest in both Futures/Options (F&O) and cash markets.

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29.

For a Sectoral Fund, the minimum investment in equity and equity-related instruments of a specific sector of total assets should be ________.

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30.

Mr. Tarun, in his 30s with a stable job, is investing the majority of his savings in bank deposits. Due to the low rate of return on these deposits, he is jeopardizing his financial goals. Which behavioral bias is evident in his portfolio?

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31.

Mutual fund distributors are assigned the ARN (AMFI Registration Number) by ______.

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32.

SEBI has regulations regarding restrictions on the investment policies of mutual fund schemes to ensure that ______.

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33.

What is a drawback of company fixed deposits when compared to bank fixed deposits?

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34.

When a mutual fund distributor gets empaneled with an AMC, he/she has to sign a declaration for ______.

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35.

If an investor needs to change their default account, they have to do it with ____.

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36.

Who must contribute money to the mutual fund’s total amount among the mentioned entities?

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37.

True or False: Investors of the same age group should always have the same asset allocation in their investment portfolios.

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38.

Which of these investors is NOT allowed to make cash investments in mutual funds up to a limit of Rs. 50,000?

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39.

How can the fundamental attributes of a mutual fund scheme be altered?

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40.

Redemption proceeds must be paid to the mutual fund unit holders within the time specified by ______ from time to time.

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41.

Ms. Shweta buys 5000 units of a mutual fund scheme through a distributor at an NAV of Rs 30. The current NAV is Rs 28. What will be the trail commission for today, assuming a trail commission rate of 1% per annum?

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42.

The mutual fund scheme should have a minimum of ______ investors.

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43.

What is the Source Scheme in a Systematic Transfer Plan?

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44.

The investment objective of a ______ is to pursue capital appreciation.

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45.

Who oversees the contributions from investors and makes investment decisions in a mutual fund company?

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46.

When does the market price of a closed-end mutual fund scheme align with the NAV (Net Asset Value) price?

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47.

What is needed for the termination of the services of an Asset Management Company (AMC)?

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48.

Identify the correct statement regarding ‘Jensen’s Alpha’ of a mutual fund scheme.

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49.

In which of the following scenarios can Goods and Service Tax (GST) be levied on the mutual fund scheme in addition to the Total Expense Ratio of the scheme?

50 / 100

50.

Which of the following functions can an Asset Management Company (AMC) handle internally (in-house)?

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51.

The denominator in the calculation of the Sharpe Ratio is the risk premium, which is the difference between the return from the fund and the risk-free rate.

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52.

Once the mutual fund units are pledged, the unit holder/s _______.

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53.

In case one of the joint holders dies, the units will _________.

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54.

Which of this information is not included in the Scheme Information Document (SID)?

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55. This statement best describes the “investment limit” of the mutual fund scheme.

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56. Identify the TRUE statement. A) While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an entry load, then the initial value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV minus Entry Load. B) While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an exit load, then the later value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV minus Exit Load.

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57. Identify the TRUE statement/s with respect to the risks associated with short selling and stock lending.

  1. There is counterparty risk and liquidity risk in short selling.
  2. There is no risk associated with stock lending as the transaction is done through an approved intermediary.

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58.

______ is NOT accepted as a photo identity document for Micro SIP.

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59.

Identify the TRUE statement/s:

  1. The Beta of a diversified stock index is greater than 1.
  2. An investment with a beta of 0.8 will move 8 percent when markets move by 10%.
  3. Beta as a measure of risk is relevant only for equity schemes.

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60.

The Net Asset Value (NAV) of a segregated portfolio has to be declared on a ________.

61 / 100

61. Identify the FALSE statement :
A. When the mutual fund distributor understands the needs of his investor, one can ignore the investment objective of the mutual fund schemes
B. The best strategy in selecting a mutual fund scheme is that based on its past performance

62 / 100

62.

What occurs in the process of Indexation?

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63.

Under which of the following circumstances can a mutual fund impose an additional expense of 0.30% of daily net assets of the scheme?

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64.

The portfolio of a fund of funds consists of ________.

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65.

________ would not be an originator to a special purpose vehicle, in the case of securitized assets.

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66. Identify the FALSE statement/s with respect to benchmarks for mutual fund schemes. A. A Multi-Cap fund can have Nifty 500 index as its benchmark. B. A Multi-Cap fund can have BSE Sensex as its benchmark.

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67.

Which of these statements is true regarding Key Information Memorandum (KIM)?

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68.

Where is the performance data for all schemes across the mutual fund industry accessible?

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69.

_______ is not part of the fundamental attributes of a mutual fund scheme.

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70.

Usually, most investors might have invested across various asset categories. However, the problem with such asset allocation is that _______.

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71.

To whom does the compliance requirement under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) apply?

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72.

These debt mutual funds have been arranged from lowest risk to highest risk. Identify the risk which we are discussing:

  1. Liquid Funds 2. Money market funds 3. Medium-term bond funds

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73. Identify the TRUE statement – A. It is mandatory for the AMC to disclose the valuation policy. B. The AMC is not accountable for policies and procedures for detecting and preventing incorrect valuation.

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74. Identify the true statement(s): A) A systematic transaction cannot be canceled. B) Assuming a mutual fund scheme is profitable, investors can keep encashing some profits through a Systematic Withdrawal Plan.

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75. Indicate the sequence of funds from the lowest to highest risk: A) Liquid Fund B) Credit Risk Fund C) Corporate Bond Fund

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76. AMFI Code of Ethics states that _______ cannot become a distributor of mutual funds.

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77.

An investor buys 5000 units of a mutual fund scheme through a distributor at an NAV of Rs 25. The current NAV is Rs 43. What will be the trail commission for today if the trail commission rate is 1% per annum?

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78.

Rising Sun Mutual Fund holds shares of AAA Ltd. in its portfolio. When the NAV of the scheme is calculated on 10th April, then each share of AAA Ltd. will be valued at ______.

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79. According to guidelines given by SEBI, every mutual fund scheme should have a minimum of ____ investors

80 / 100

80. Identify the TRUE statements with respect to the Transmission of mutual fund units: A) Before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will insist on an indemnity against future problems for the mutual fund arising out of the transfer. B) Before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will insist on the death certificate of the deceased unit-holder. C) Before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will insist on the KYC documentation from the nominee.

81 / 100

81. Smita is a young investor, and her parents advise her to invest in fixed deposits of banks so that these funds can be used for her retirement. If Smita follows her parents’ advice, what risk does she face?

82 / 100

82. Mr. Mohit has filled up an application form for subscribing to a mutual fund scheme. However, the address mentioned in the application form is different from the address provided at the time of KYC compliance. Which address will be included in the mutual fund’s records once the KYC compliance is validated?

83 / 100

83. Which of these statements are TRUE with respect to time stamping on mutual fund documents? A) Time stamping is relevant for non-financial mutual fund transactions. B) The daily time stamping of application does not start with serial 1. C) Breakdown of the time stamping process or breaking of the seal is mandated to be duly recorded and reported to the Trustees.

84 / 100

84.

Investors who have not transacted during the previous ______ are known as dormant investors.

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85.

Identify the TRUE statement –

86 / 100

86. Long-term capital loss from an investment can be set off against _____.

87 / 100

87.

The NAV of an equity fund is Rs. 76.45, and the face value is Rs. 10. An investor invests Rs 30,000. How many units will be allotted to him? (There is no entry load)

88 / 100

88. Who utilizes the information collected under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA)?

89 / 100

89.

Which of these entities can invest in Indian mutual funds?

An ongoing bond fund will lose value when the interest rates in the market ______ .

90 / 100

90. The expenses of _______ cannot be charged to a mutual fund scheme.

91 / 100

91.

_______ ensures that the information contained in the scheme-related documents (SID and SAI) is fully complied with.

92 / 100

92.

Identify the FALSE statement(s) – A) For Index funds, the NAV is calculated up to 4 decimal points. B) The AMC and a mutual fund scheme of the AMC can have the same auditor.

93 / 100

93.

Identify the false statement(s). A) When an investor wants to redeem from a scheme, the distributor must suggest redemption from the scheme with the maximum exit load. B) The mutual fund distributors can ignore the impact of exit load at the time of repurchase.

94 / 100

94. Identify the False statement/s. A. Valuation gains are ignored, but valuation losses need to be adjusted against the profits while calculating distributable surplus. B. The Mark-to-market gains form a part of the distributable reserves in the case of mutual fund Income Distribution Cum Capital Withdrawal plan.

95 / 100

95.

Which document is used by fund rating agencies and also by investors to check the performance of various schemes of a mutual fund?

96 / 100

96.

The compliance requirements under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) applies only to mutual funds and not to other financial institutions – State whether True or False ?

97 / 100

97.

For a Sector Fund, the minimum investment in equity and equity related instruments of a particular sector/ theme shall be 90 percent of total assets. State whether True or False?

98 / 100

98. Liquid Fund is an open-ended liquid scheme whose investment is in debt and money market securities with a maturity of up to 91 days only.

99 / 100

99.

Identify the action that needs to be taken as per the AMFI Code of Ethics for Mutual Funds when a mutual fund enters into a transaction for the purchase or sale of securities with any of its associates?

100 / 100

100. The additional Total Expense Ratio (TER) charged has to be credited back to the Mutual Fund if the inflows from beyond the top 30 cities are redeemed within a period of 1 year from the date of investment. State whether True or False?

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