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NISM Series V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors 'Final Test'

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NISM Series V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors ‘Final Test’

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1. What does ‘Asset Allocation’ mean?

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2.

NSE’s MIBOR (Mumbai Interbank Offer Rate) can be used as a benchmark for which of the following funds?

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3.

What is fixed in a Closed-end fund ?

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4.

Which document contains the statutory information about the mutual fund or Asset Management Company (AMC) offering the scheme?

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5. Short-term capital loss from an investment can be set off against __________.

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6.

If a fund manager is managing more than six funds, then ___________ must be disclosed in all performance-related advertisements.

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7. Among these funds, which fund will be the least affected by Interest Rate Risk?

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8.

An existing bond fund will tend to lose value when market interest rates ___________.

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9. What is involved in the process of financial goal setting?

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10.

In which of the following cases is the transaction charge, paid to the mutual fund distributor, deducted from the gross investment of the investor?

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11.

In a Corporate Bond fund, the minimum investment in the highest-rated corporate bonds is _________ percent of the total assets.

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12. When a dividend is paid, the Net Asset Value (NAV) of the units _____________ to that extent.

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13.

An investor already has a folio in a mutual fund scheme where he is a joint holder. Now, he wants to make additional investments in the same scheme as a sole holder. How can he make this change?

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14. Information under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) is to be provided __________.

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15. One of the objectives of ___________ is to conduct a nationwide investor awareness program to promote a proper understanding of the concept and workings of mutual funds.

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16.

Decisions in Tactical Asset Allocation are made based on ___________.

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17.

Among these funds, which one carries the highest level of risk?

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18.

Which category of Hybrid Fund exhibits the lowest equity exposure?

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19.

At what price can investors purchase or redeem units of an open-ended fund following the New Fund Offer?

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20.

If a third-party payment is to be made for subscribing to a mutual fund scheme, which of the following is/are essentially required?

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21.

A mutual fund scheme can allocate funds to invest __________ in the equity instruments of a company.

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22.

When compared to open-ended funds, investors in closed-ended funds encounter a higher level of _______ .

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23.

When is the Statement of Additional Information (SAI) revised or updated?

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24.

Identify the correct statement(s) regarding the benchmark for mutual fund schemes.

A) For an International Equity fund, the ideal benchmark will be the BSE 500 index as it is a very broad-based index covering 500 companies.

B) For a Gold ETF, gold prices will be the ideal benchmark.

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25. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

A. In equity investments, the probability of losing money over the long term is lower than losing money in the short term.

B. Fundamental Analysis involves studying the financial statements of a company and the candlestick charts.

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26.

Can the fundamental attributes of a scheme be altered? If so, how can this be done?

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27.

Who provides a due diligence certificate, affirming compliance with all legal formalities, during the launch of a new offer of mutual fund units?

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28.

In a mutual fund application form, if ‘Direct’ is indicated in the space designated for ARN, and the choice of a regular plan is selected, the application will be considered as ______ .

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29.

What information must a regular investor furnish to be identified as an existing investor in the mutual fund?

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30.

The AMFI Code of Ethics (ACE) outlines ________ .

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31.

How frequently does a mutual fund disclose information on the Total Expense Ratio charged to a mutual fund scheme, and where is this information published?

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32.

If an intermediary breaches the Code of Conduct, and a second violation by the intermediary is substantiated, the registration of the intermediary is __________.

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33. If a Segregated Portfolio is created, it shall be effective from _________the day of the credit event.

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34.

Information regarding investor service centers, minimum investment amounts, and the process for making mutual fund purchases is typically found _________.

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35.

What is the initial step that a mutual fund distributor should take in constructing a mutual fund portfolio for their investors?

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36.

Which statement is accurate regarding the applicability of TDS in the case of capital gains from mutual fund units?

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37.

Which type of investor is not required to provide a PAN card at the time of making a mutual fund investment?

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38.

Which transaction of an open-ended fund is determined based on the Net Asset Value (NAV) pricing?

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39.

In the case of a securitized asset, _______ will not act as an originator to a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) ?

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40.

What does the term “Indexation” refer to?

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41.

As per SEBI rules, commissions cannot be paid to __________.

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42.

To become a mutual fund distributor in India, one has to pass an exam conducted by __________.

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43.

Which of these documents is not necessary to be submitted for investing in mutual funds by a charitable organization?

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44.

Mr. Sandesh invests Rs 75 lakh in a Gilt Fund and provides a local cheque at 3.30 pm. What will be the applicable Net Asset Value (NAV) for the allotment of units?

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45.

What is the timeframe within which SEBI is required to approve the scheme-related document?

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46. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding Scheme Performance Disclosures. A) The data related to fund performance of all mutual funds is available on the AMFI website. B) SEBI has mandated disclosure of performance data by all the AMCs.

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47.

To assess fund managers’ performance, the calculated difference between a scheme’s actual return and its optimal return is known as ______ .

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48.

Who is responsible for overseeing legal compliance in a mutual fund?

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49.

A mutual fund manager is considering investing in Indian pharma companies due to their establishment of new manufacturing capacities. Identify the investment style of the fund manager.

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50.

On which of the following factors do returns from an international fund depend?

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51.

The Securities Transaction Tax levied on the re-purchase of units of debt mutual funds is __________.

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52.

Identify the accurate statement regarding the Total Expense Ratio (TER).

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53.

In the event of any conflict between the Principles of Fair Valuation and AMC’s Valuation Guidelines, _________ .

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54.

A ________ investor will prefer lower risk and will settle for a lower return.

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55. An investor selects a mutual fund scheme based on whether his/her ________ aligns with that of the scheme.

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56.

Identify the correct statement(s):

A) Individuals can register up to five bank accounts with a mutual fund.

B) A non-individual can register up to ten bank accounts with a mutual fund.

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57.

The investors of a mutual fund can terminate the AMC or wind up a scheme if _______ % or more of the unit holders agree to it.

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58.

Which of the following statements is true with respect to ‘Mark to Market’?

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59.

Identify the correct statement(s):

A) Beta is a measure of risk for equity schemes.

B) Variance is a measure of risk for both debt and equity schemes.

C) A fall in prices of debt securities due to default, etc., is known as a ‘credit event.’

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60.

The units of a close-ended mutual fund are traded between the unit holders/investors and _________ on the stock exchange.

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61.

Identify which statement is true.

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62.

AMCs have to establish a due diligence process to regulate distributors who ______ .

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63.

From which of these sources can the mutual fund NOT distribute dividends?

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64.

If one wants to understand the General Risk Factors, which document should they read?

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65.

_______ is recognized as an Institutional Investor.

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66.

Which of these is a Passive Fund?

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67. A person who wants to retain liquidity in his investments will invest in _____ .

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68.

The empanelment of a mutual fund distributor by an Asset Management Company can be terminated ______ .

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69.

Identify the false statement(s):

A) The best strategy in selecting a mutual fund scheme is based on its past performance.

B) When an investor wants to redeem from a scheme, the distributor must suggest redemption from the scheme with the maximum exit load.

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70.

Identify the true statement with respect to ‘Unclaimed Dividend’ in mutual fund schemes.

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71.

A minor has one more year to become a major. A 3-year SIP is started in the minor’s folio. Which of the following statements is true in this case?

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72.

What will happen if one of the joint holders of a mutual fund folio dies?

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73.

Who applies to SEBI for the registration of a Mutual Fund?

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74. When there is a need to withdraw money from a scheme (i.e., repurchase/redemption), the distributor must assess the implications of ______ and ______ on the investor’s portfolio.

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75.

Identify the false statement with respect to mutual fund scheme-related documents.

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76.

Who handles the appeals made against the rulings of SEBI?

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77.

Identify the true statement(s):

A) The nominee is the beneficial owner of the mutual fund units.

B) Nomination does not create any title or beneficial interest in the units in favor of the nominee after the death of the unit-holder.

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78.

A trader believes that he can always outperform the market. This is an example of ____ bias.

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79.

Identify the TRUE statement(s):

a) In an Assured Return scheme, if the scheme is not able to pay the assured return amount, then the guarantor has to pay the same.

b) Investor returns might vary from the scheme returns on account of choices regarding the investment schedule.

c) The returns published in a mutual fund advertisement factor the entry or exit load, as may be applicable.

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80. Identify the TRUE statement ?

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81.

Mr. Suresh invests Rs 2,00,000 in a mutual fund with a face value of Rs. 10 and NAV of Rs. 50. How many units will be allotted to him?

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82. Which statement(s) accurately describe the benchmarking approach for Sector Funds?

A) Is it recommended to benchmark a sector fund against an index representing the corresponding sector?

B) Is it advisable to benchmark a sector fund against a diversified fund for a more accurate representation?

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83. What is the foundation for the appointment of a distributor by an Asset Management Company (AMC)?

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84.

Which statement(s) accurately describe the stamping process for applications related to non-financial transactions of a mutual fund?

A) Is time stamping relevant?

B) Is date stamping pertinent?

C) Is the date and time stamping performed?

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85. A synopsis of the scheme-related information documents is found in the __________.

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86. What is the specified investment range for a mutual fund house to allocate funds to debt instruments in a Balanced Hybrid Fund?

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87. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

A) If mutual fund units are held in demat form, they can be converted into physical form through the rematerialization process.

B) When redeeming mutual fund units or receiving a dividend pay-out, the amount will be credited to the bank account linked to the mutual fund folio, for investors who have opted for demat units.

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88. Commodities as an asset class do not include ________ .

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89. Which of these is NOT a function of Registrars and Transfer Agents?

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90. Which expenses can be charged by the AMC to a mutual fund scheme?

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91.

Mutual funds must publish their unaudited accounts once every six months _________.

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92. In case the units are pledged, the unit holder ________ .

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93. Which document typically includes a commentary on the current state of the economy and markets?

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94. Identify the false statement(s):

A) A share certificate is a physical asset.

B) Debenture is a physical asset as the paper on which it is printed has value.

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95. A mutual fund scheme’s performance should always be evaluated about the ___________.

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96. What is the upper limit on the percentage of a mutual fund scheme that a single investor can hold?

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97. What percentage of the total assets must be invested in equity and equity-related instruments in a Contra Fund?

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98. Which individual is unauthorized to attest documents submitted for Know Your Customer (KYC) compliance if originals are not presented during the KYC process?

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99. Which of the following is not a distribution channel for mutual funds?

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100. Which statement(s) correctly identify the situation?

A) Is it necessary for an Addendum to be accompanied by the KIM?

B) Is the Addendum considered a component of the Scheme Related Documents?

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