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NISM Series IX: Merchant Banking Certification 'Last Day Revision' Test 2

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NISM Series IX: Merchant Banking Certification ‘Last Day’ Test 2

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1. To ensure effective monitoring of the capital adequacy and financial well-being of merchant bankers, Regulation 15 stipulates that merchant bankers must furnish the _______ unaudited financial results to SEBI when deemed necessary.

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2. In the earlier days, Merchant Bankers primarily engaged in the activities of ________.

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3. No issuer shall make a public issue or rights issue of specified securities unless it has entered into an agreement with a _________ for the dematerialization of specified securities already issued or proposed to be issued.

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4. When a transaction is conducted on the __________, buyers and sellers may not be in direct contact with each other.

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5. Is the Compliance Officer permitted to autonomously report any identified noncompliance to SEBI and ensure that the deficiencies or observations noted by SEBI in the draft prospectus or letters of offer, as applicable, are prevented from recurring?

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6. Which SEBI regulation is applicable to the delisting of equity shares of a company from all or any of the recognized stock exchanges where such shares are listed?

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7. Regarding the Offer Document, in the absence of any observations issued by SEBI, the lead merchant banker is obligated to submit which of the following document(s) to SEBI?

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8. As per the rules of SEBI (Certification of Associated Persons in Securities Markets) Regulations, any person who is not the Principal, who is not over 50 years of age, or who does not have 10 years of relevant experience can obtain the certificate for the first time by passing the NISM Certification Examination.

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9. As per the SEBI (Merchant Bankers) Regulations, a merchant banker is obligated to retain copies of _________ for a duration of 5 years.

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10. Which of the following activities is NOT within the purview of a Merchant Banker?

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11. Is it accurate to state that a takeover can occur through the acquisition of shares, involving the purchase of requisite voting rights from the market to change the management of the company?

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12. Is it correct to state that the duration of the offer for sale through the stock exchange mechanism shall align with the trading hours of the secondary market and should not exceed one trading day?

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13. Is it correct to state that an issue shall commence at least three working days after registering the red herring prospectus with the Registrar of Companies?

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14. As per SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, who qualifies as an Insider?

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15. Is it correct to state that Further Public Offer (FPO) can only be conducted through book building issues via the stock exchange route?

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16. Is it accurate to state that the SEBI ICDR (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations outline the general obligations of issuers and other intermediaries involved in the process of issue management?

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17. As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of shares and takeovers – SAST) Regulations, 2011, the consideration payable under the open offer on the initial _____ is 25% of the consideration that the acquirer is required to deposit in the escrow account.

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18. If a broker neglects to provide any information, document, books, returns, or report to a recognized stock exchange within the stipulated time, they shall be subject to a penalty of _____ for each day that the failure persists or _____, whichever is lower.

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19. How does SEBI effectively oversee the capital adequacy and financial well-being of a merchant banker?

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20. Under Section 15HA of the SEBI Act, individuals engaged in fraudulent and unfair trade practices concerning securities may face a penalty of ________ or three times the profits obtained from such practices, whichever is greater.

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21. Is it correct to state that the issuer, when filing the draft offer document with the recognized stock exchange where the specified securities are intended to be listed, submits the passport number of its promoters to such stock exchange?

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22. A public issue can be declared closed even if ______ of it is subscribed.

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23. The trading plan submitted by an insider to the compliance officer under the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading Regulations) can be executed ________.

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24. Who appoints the legal counsel responsible for legal due diligence, advising on the syndicate agreement, and assisting in drafting the offer document, etc.?

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25. What is the term for the scenario where two companies merge to create an entirely new entity, and neither of the original companies continues to exist independently?

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26. Is it correct to state that Call Options provide the seller with the right, but not the obligation, to sell a specified quantity of the underlying asset at a predetermined price on or before a specified date?

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27. Under what circumstances might the application of an investor in a public issue be rejected?

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28. What is one of the prerequisites for a company seeking to launch a public issue through the ‘Fast Track Issue’ process? The condition specifies that the company must have complied with the listing agreement for a minimum of _____ years immediately preceding the reference date.

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29. Is it correct to state that the Department of Economic Affairs manages all affairs concerning the disinvestment of the Government of India’s shareholding in Central Public Sector Enterprises?

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30. What term is used to describe the offering of shares to Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) with the aim of meeting the minimum public shareholding requirements mandated under Rule 19(2)(b) of the SCRR?

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31. Within what timeframe is the merchant banker required to take appropriate measures to address investor grievances from the date of receiving the complaint and keep SEBI informed about the number, nature, and other details of the complaints received?

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32. Is it accurate to state that, under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011, a shareholder who has not exercised an option in their acceptance shall be considered to have chosen to receive the offer price in cash?

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33.

Which of the following conditions must be satisfied by a company planning a public issue exceeding Rs 10 crore before it can proceed with the issuance?

I) Ensure that all existing partly paid-up equity shares of the issuer are either fully paid up or forfeited.
II) Enter into an agreement with a depository for the dematerialization of specified securities already issued or proposed to be issued.
III) Enter into an agreement with an event management company for managing the road shows.
IV) Submit an application to one or more recognized stock exchanges for the listing of specified securities and designate one of them as the designated stock exchange.

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34. How can a shareholder who has not received the Rights Issue application form from the issuer apply for it?

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35. Is it accurate to state that a Category III foreign portfolio investor shall not be considered a promoter solely because they hold 20% or more of the equity share capital of the issuer?

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36. What term refers to an agreement, with or without conditions, to subscribe to the securities of a body corporate or to facilitate subscription when the existing shareholders or the public do not subscribe to the offered securities?

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37. Which group of applicants in a public issue is qualified to receive a discount of up to 10% of the offer price?

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38. Where can the Debt market instruments be traded?

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39. Underwriting is compulsory in a book-built offer except when _____

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40. How are refund orders, allotment letters, and share certificates typically sent to investors?

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41. What is the minimum value for an issue of Indian Depository Receipts (IDR)?

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42. Under the SEBI (Certification of Associated Persons in Securities Markets) rules, if an individual (who is not the Principal) has reached the age of 50, they can obtain the certificate by _________.

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43. Who is/are considered Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) for participating in a public issue?

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44. To be eligible for a public issue, if a company has changed its name within the last one year, it should have earned at least _____ of its revenue for the preceding one full year from the activity indicated by the new name.

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45. Regulation 8 of the SEBI ICDR Regulations outlines the specifics of the documents that need to be furnished to SEBI before the commencement of the issue. What does the lead merchant banker need to submit to SEBI, in addition to the draft offer document, as per these regulations?

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46. Mergers, amalgamations, de-mergers, acquisitions of business units or divisions, are all governed by __________

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47. In the event of a further public offer or a rights issue, from whom is the issuer required to obtain in-principle approval?

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48. Who is responsible for verifying that the contents of offer documents hosted on websites, as mandated by the Regulation, are identical to those of the printed copies submitted to the RoC, SEBI, and the stock exchanges?

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49. Is it accurate to state that every merchant banker must submit complete particulars of any transaction for the acquisition of securities of any body corporate whose issue is being managed by that merchant banker within thirty days from the date of entering into such transaction?

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50. Is it correct to assert that a financial institution, scheduled bank, foreign portfolio investor other than Category III foreign portfolio investor, and mutual fund shall not be considered a promoter solely because _____ or more of the equity share capital of the issuer is held by such entities?

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51. As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of shares and takeovers – SAST) Regulations, the initial _______ in the open offer requires the acquirer to deposit 25% of the consideration into the escrow account.

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52. What is the duration of the lock-in period (restriction on transferability) applicable to promoters’ contributions in the context of public issues?

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53. Is it possible to underwrite an issue when 50% of the net offer to the public is intended to be compulsorily allotted to Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs)?

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54. The regulation of debt securities issuance falls under the purview of ________.

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55. Is it true or false that the SEBI ICDR Regulations prohibit intermediaries from offering incentives to any individual for submitting an application for the allotment of specified securities?

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56. According to the listing agreement with stock exchanges, what is the stipulated minimum paid-up capital requirement for the issuer?

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57. The term “Retail individual Investor” refers to an investor who applies or bids for securities with a value not exceeding ________.

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58. A public issue can be declared closed even if a certain percentage of the offer has been subscribed through the offer document.

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59. In the due diligence process, the lead manager and the issuer is assisted by _______

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60. Is it true or false that, in the case of an IPO, the issuer is required to announce the floor price or price band at least three working days before the opening of the bid in all the newspapers where the pre-issue advertisement was published?

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61.

According to Rule 19(3) of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Rules, 1957 (SCRR), which of the following conditions must a company applying for listing undertake to fulfill:
1. Issuing letters of allotment simultaneously
2. Issuing letters of right simultaneously
3. Serially numbering and printing letters of allotment, acceptance, or rights on good quality paper
4. Stating in letters of allotment and letters of right how the next payment of interest or dividend on the securities will be calculated

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62. A fund that can invest in either all of the securities or a representative sample of securities included in the index is called _________.

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63. Which Act aims to prohibit anti-competitive agreements, address the abuse of dominant positions by enterprises, and regulate combinations (acquisition, acquiring control, and M&A) that may cause or likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India?

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64.

In a merger, the merchant banker is responsible for handling functions related to which of the following:
i) Internal Audit
ii) Legal counseling
iii) Preparation and circulation of information memoranda
iv) Deal structuring negotiations

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65.

As per the SEBI (Merchant Bankers) Regulations, 1992, which of the following activities can be conducted by a merchant banker?
I. Corporate advisory services such as mergers, takeovers, buybacks, etc.
II. Stock broking
III. Advisory services for projects
IV. Syndication of domestic loan offerings

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66. The SEBI (Merchant Banking) Regulations, 1992 includes _____

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67. What is the minimum subscription amount as specified in the SEBI (Issue and Listing of Debt Securities) Regulations, 2008?

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68. What is the term for the situation when one company takes over another and clearly establishes itself as the new owner?

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69. In accordance with SEBI ICDR Regulations, what fees are payable by the issuer to SEBI if the public issue size is below Rs 10 crore?

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70. Is it true or false that merchant bankers holding a valid registration certificate under the SEBI Act cannot act as an underwriter and must obtain a separate certificate according to the SEBI (Underwriters) Regulations?

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71. Is it true or false that, according to the SEBI (Issue and Listing of Debt Securities) Regulations, issuers are permitted to retain over-subscription money up to a maximum of 50% of the base issue size?

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72. What is the minimum subscription, as stipulated by SEBI, in the case of the issuance of debt securities?

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73. A further public offering (FPO) can be made through the _________

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74. To maintain the registration, a merchant banker with a certificate of permanent registration is required to pay a fee of _________ rupees every three years starting from the sixth year from the date of the initial registration certificate or the completion of the renewed registration period, as applicable.

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75. What financial instruments provide the buyer with the right, though not the obligation, to purchase a specified quantity of the underlying asset at a predetermined price on or before a designated future date?

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76. Is it true or false that, according to the SEBI Merchant Bankers regulations, the lead manager is required to demarcate and distribute the responsibilities of each lead manager during the process of the issuance of securities?

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77. The merchant banker is obligated to ensure that all information in the offer document, including particulars from the audited financial statements, is not more than _____ months old from the issue opening date.

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78. In the case of a public issue of equity shares, the draft offer document submitted to SEBI must be made public for comments, if any, by hosting it on the website of SEBI, etc., for at least _____ from the date of filing to gather comments from the general public.

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79. Is it true or false that, according to the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, when securities of the acquirer company are offered in lieu of cash payment, the value of such securities shall be determined in the specified manner, as duly certified by an independent merchant banker other than the manager to the offer?

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80. Under the SEBI (Buyback) Regulations, what is the maximum percentage of the paid-up capital and free reserves of a listed company allowed for buybacks of shares from open market purchases?

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81. For how many days should the Draft Shelf Prospectus for a public issue of debt securities be made available for public comments?

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82. In a delisting offer under the SEBI (Delisting of Equity Shares) Regulations, who purchases the shares of the selling shareholders?

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83. What term refers to the issuance of specified securities by a listed issuer to any select person or group of persons on a private placement basis?

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84. Is it true or false that the RBI Act also aims to consolidate and amend the law related to foreign exchange with the objective of facilitating external trade and payments?

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85. As per the (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, no acquirer shall acquire shares or voting rights in a target company that, when combined with shares or voting rights held by the acquirer and persons acting in concert with them, would entitle them to exercise _____ or more of the voting rights in the target company unless the acquirer makes a public announcement of an open offer to acquire shares of the target company in accordance with these regulations.

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86. In case of multiple merchant bankers for an issue, how are the responsibilities divided?

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87. Which regulatory framework outlines detailed requirements regarding disclosure and process for capital market transactions by both listed and unlisted companies that are in the process of listing?

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88. What serves as an interface between the issuer company and SEBI?

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89. The escrow account created to meet delisting requirements shall include either cash deposited with a scheduled commercial bank or a _________ in favor of the merchant banker, or a combination of both.

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90. When two companies are merged, the combined business, through structural and operational advantages secured by the merger, can lead to what?

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91. Is it permissible for a merchant banker to act as a lead manager in an issue even if the merchant banker associated with the issue does not possess a SEBI certification of registration? – Yes or No

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92. Is it true or false that in the case of an offer for sale, the Offer Document is referred to as a Prospectus?

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93. What does ‘Net Offer to Public’ mean ?

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94. A preference issue is a _______

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95.

When the issuer submits the draft document to the stock exchange for the listing of securities, it is also required to provide details of which of the following:
1. Passport number
2. PAN Card number
3. Bank Account Number

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96. As per the Companies Act, the prospectus issued by a company or in relation to an intended company shall be dated, and that date shall be considered as the __________.

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97. Is it true or false that the Companies Act of 1956 brought about an era of efficient capital market infrastructure, improved investor protection, reduced risks, and increased transparency of transactions in the securities market?

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98. The issuer is required to announce the floor price or price band at least ____ working days before the opening of the bid for an IPO and at least _____ working day prior to the opening of the bid for an FPO in all the newspapers where the pre-issue advertisement was released.

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99. As per the SEBI ICDR Regulations, who is included in the term “promoters and promoters group”?

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100. Which of the following ways are used by the Promoters to dilute/offload their holding in listed companies?

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