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NISM Series IX: Merchant Banking Certification 'Final Test'

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NISM Series IX: Merchant Banking Certification ‘Final Test’

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1. If SEBI has not issued any observation on the draft offer document, what document(s) is the lead merchant banker required to submit to SEBI?

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2. To conduct an IPO and list its shares on the National Stock Exchange, M/s XYZ Ltd is required to obtain in-principle approval from which of the following stock exchanges?

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3. According to SEBI SAST regulations, the open offer for acquiring shares to be made by the acquirer shall be for at least twenty-six per cent of the total shares of the target company, as of _______ working day from the closure of the tendering period.

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4. What is the minimum requirement for the base issue size in a public issue of debt securities?

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5. Is it true or false that a merger is necessarily among two equal or comparable stature companies?

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6. Is it true or false that the fees payable by the merchant banker on the grant of a certificate of registration should be by a demand draft in favor of the Association of Investment Bankers of India (AIBI) payable at Mumbai?

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7. As per the SEBI ICDR regulations, for each placement of eligible securities made under QIP, the minimum number of allottees shall not be less than two, where the size is less than or equal to ________.

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8. Is it true or false that the criteria for being a FIT and PROPER person is outlined in the SEBI (Merchant Banking) Regulations?

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9. To whom does the lead merchant banker need to submit the post-issue reports?

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10. What should the merchant banker verify regarding the subscription before publicly announcing the closure of the issue?

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11. Is it true or false that, in the case of a public issue of debt securities, the base issue size should be a minimum of Rs 100 Crores?

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12. As per SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, which of the following is included in the term ‘unpublished price-sensitive information’?

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13. How many days prior to the opening of the Institutional Placement Programme does the eligible seller need to announce the floor price or the price band?

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14. Is it true or false that the escrow account opened for the purpose of fulfilling delisting requirements shall consist of either cash deposited with a scheduled commercial bank, or a bank guarantee in favor of the merchant banker, or a combination of both?

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15. As per the SEBI SAST Regulations, what is the percentage of consideration payable under the open offer on the first Rs 500 crore that the acquirer must deposit in the escrow account?

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16. An anchor investor refers to a qualified institutional buyer making an application for a value of _______ or more in a public issue, one day before the opening of that public issue.

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17. Who appoints the printers engaged in bulk printing of the offer document and application forms?

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18. What is the limit on the aggregate of the proposed Qualified Institutional Placements (QIP) and all previous QIPs made by the issuer in the same financial year, ensuring it does not exceed _______ times the net worth of the issuer as per the audited balance sheet of the previous financial year?

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19. Equity shares can be delisted even without the adoption of the Reverse Book Building process where ____________.

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20. In the Indian market, derivatives in which of the underlying assets are permitted?

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21. Any acquisitions of shares or control in listed Indian companies are governed by ___________.

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22. If the issuer company itself is a registrar to an issue registered with SEBI, then _____________.

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23. _______ aggregates funds from multiple investors with similar investment objectives.

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24. In the context of Public Sector Undertakings, disinvestment means the direct or indirect sale by the Central Government of its _______.

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25. According to SEBI ICDR Regulations, the particulars as per the restated audited financial statements in the offer document should not be more than ____ from the issue opening date.

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26. Is it true or false that a company needs to have a minimum paid-up capital of Rs 10 crore to list on BSE and Rs 20 crore to list on NSE?

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27. In case of a public issue or offer for sale, what is the term used for the document that is equivalent to an Offer Document?

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28. Which document(s) must the merchant banker maintain for a minimum period of 5 accounting years?

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29. For a rights issue, what is the minimum period for which it shall be open for subscription?

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30. Warrants can be issued along with a public issue or rights issue of specified securities, and a specified security may have _______ warrant(s) attached to it.

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31. A public issue can be declared closed even if ______ of it is subscribed.

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32. The issuer and the merchant banker have to ensure that specified securities are allotted and/or application money is refunded within _______ from the date of closure of the issue.

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33. If the shares are not allotted to the investor, then the Merchant Banker has to refund the application money within how many days from the date of closure of the issue?

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34. What is the term for a fund that can invest in either all of the securities or a representative sample of securities included in the index?

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35. If M/s ABC’s public issue gets oversubscribed on the first day itself, can it advertise this in newspapers before the issue closing date?

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36. Is it true or false that a company can come out with a Rights Issue even if some of its existing shares are partly paid up?

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37. Is it true or false that the merchant banker leading a public offer is popularly known as the Lead Manager?

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38. A person who has been aggrieved by any order of SEBI can appeal to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) within a period of _______ from the date on which a copy of the order was received.

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39. In case of a public issue of debt securities, the Draft Prospectus should be available to the public for comments for a period of ______.

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40. As per the Depositories Act, the principal function of the Depository is to provide a facility for investors to hold securities in dematerialized form and transfer the ownership of securities __________ by book entry.

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41. The floor price or the final price shall not be ________ the face value of the specified securities.

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42. In the case of a further public offer or a rights issue, the issuer shall obtain in-principle approval from all recognized stock exchanges where the specified securities are listed – State True or False?

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43. Can Semi-Government authorities issue Government securities in India ?

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44. The issuer has to pay fees along with the Offer Document to SEBI as per issue size. In case the issue size is not correctly known or estimated, then the excess fees must be paid within 5 working days of filing the prospectus with the Registrar of Companies – State True or False?

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45. A company, which is coming out with an initial public offer, wants to list its shares only on NSE. In this case, the company is required to take in-principle approval from which of the following exchanges?

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46. Warrants can be issued along with public issue with tenure not exceeding more than ____ from the date of allotment in public issue.

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47. ________ aims to prevent undesirable speculation in the Securities Market.

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48. As per the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, every listed company, market intermediary, and other persons formulating a code of conduct shall identify and designate a _________ to administer the code of conduct.

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49. Compulsory Delisting is a condition when the issuer company no longer wants to be on the trading platform of the exchange and exits out of the Exchange – State True or False?

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50. What are the exception(s) to the rule stated in Section 33 of the Companies Act 2013, which mandates that no form of application can be issued for the purchase of any securities of a company unless it is accompanied by an abridged prospectus?

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51. What is the maximum percentage of the post-issue capital of the issuer allowed for aggregate reservation on a competitive basis for employees, as per SEBI-ICDR Regulations?

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52. What is an application that includes an authorization to block the application money in the bank account for subscribing to an issue?

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53. What is the percentage of the consideration payable under the open offer, as per SEBI SAST Regulations, that the acquirer is required to deposit in the escrow account for the first Rs.500 Crores?

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54. Within how many days from the date of receiving a satisfactory reply from the lead merchant bankers, where SEBI has sought clarification or additional information, may SEBI provide its observations or specify changes on the draft offer document?

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55. What is the minimum number of allottees for each placement of eligible securities made under QIP (Qualified Institutions Placement) as per SEBI ICDR (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, when the issue size exceeds Rs.250 crore, with the stipulation that no single allottee shall be allocated more than 50% of the issue?

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56. How many working days before the opening of the bid should the issuer announce the floor price band in the case of an IPO, and how many working days before the opening of the bid in an FPO should this announcement be made in all the newspapers where the pre-issue advertisement was released?

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57. It is a requirement under the SEBI Merchant Banking Regulations that every Merchant Banker must inform SEBI about the location where the books of accounts, records, and documents are kept. True or False?

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58. The Money Market Which Deals with Bonds and deposits is regulated by the _______.

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59. Where is the role of a Merchant Banker in takeovers and acquisitions of shares described?

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60. Can Semi-Govt. authorities issue Govt. securities in India?

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61. Who assists the lead manager and issuer in the due diligence process?

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62. True or False: In the case of an IPO, the issuer is required to announce the floor price band at least three working days before the opening of the bid in all the newspapers where the pre-issue advertisement was released.

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63. Disinvestment transactions are the form of ________.

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64. For how long should the Draft Prospectus be made available to the public for comments in the case of a public issue of debt securities?

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65. How many working days must pass from the date of registering the red herring prospectus with the Registrar of Companies before an issue can be opened?

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66. By utilizing their bank account, investors can apply in ______ under the ASBA facility.

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67. Under the SEBI (Delisting of Equity Shares) Regulations, in what scenario can equity shares be delisted without adopting the reverse book building method, considering the number of public shareholders and the paid-up value of shares held by them?

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68. Can a Further Public Offer (FPO) be made through the FAST TRACK ISSUE (FTI) Process? State YES or NO.

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69. To maintain the validity of a certificate of permanent registration, a Merchant Banker is required to pay a fee of _____ rupees every three years. This obligation begins from either the sixth year from the date of the initial registration certificate or from the completion of the period of renewed certificate of registration, as applicable.

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70. What condition prevents a Financial Institution, scheduled bank, foreign portfolio investor (other than Category III foreign portfolio investor), and Mutual Fund from being deemed a promoter solely based on the fact that they hold ______ or more of the equity share capital of the issuer?

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71. Which section of the SEBI ICDR Regulations outlines the specific documents that must be submitted to SEBI prior to the commencement of the issue?

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72.

In a merger, functions relating to ______ are taken care by the merchant banker.

a) Internal Audit;
b) Legal Counseling;
c) Preparation and Circulation of information memoranda
d) Deal structuring & negotiations

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73. When one company takes over another and clearly establishes itself as the new owner, the purchase is called an acquisition, not a merger.

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74. How are responsibilities divided if there are multiple merchant bankers for an issue?

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75.

What activities can a merchant banker undertake according to the SEBI (Merchant Bankers) Regulations-1992?

a) Corporate Advisory Services such as mergers, takeovers, buybacks etc.

b) Stock Broking

c) Advisory Services for Projects

d) Syndication of domestic loan offerings

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76. The two components of Capital Markets are ___________ .

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77. Who is responsible for issuing Government securities in India?

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78. Is it permissible to pay the offer price in cash during the acquisition process?

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79. Are Mutual Funds based in India classified as Institutional investors?

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80. Under ASBA facility, investors can apply in __________ by using their bank account.

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81. What are the key participants in the government securities market in India?

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82. What is the term used for the Offer Document in the case of a rights issue?

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83. Which legislative act addresses laws pertaining to both listed and unlisted companies?

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84. In which market are securities initially offered to investors?

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85. Is it true that no advertisement can be issued during the subscription period of an issue, giving the impression that the issue has been fully subscribed or oversubscribed?

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86. Is it true or false that a merger occurs when two companies combine to form a new enterprise, and neither of the previous companies survives independently?

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87. Which regulatory body oversees the money market dealing with bonds and deposits?

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88. From which legislation does the Reserve Bank derive its statutory powers to regulate market segments, and what constitutes the overarching regulatory framework for Government based on prudential guidelines issued to eligible market participants?

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89. Who initiated the commencement of Merchant Banking operations in India, and in which year did it first begin?

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90. Is it true or false that warrants may be issued alongside a public issue or rights issue of specified securities, with the condition that the tenure of such warrants does not exceed 24 months from their date of allotment in the public/rights issue?

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91.

Which of the following activities are performed by a Merchant Banker?
I – Merger and Acquisition
II – Stock Trading
III – Printing and Distribution of application forms
IV – Issue of debt securities

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92. How many working days, at a minimum, must pass from the date of registering the red herring prospectus with the Registrar of Companies before an issue can be opened?

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93. In India, who is responsible for issuing government securities?

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94. What is the maximum duration, starting from the date of allotment in the public or rights issue, for warrants to be issued alongside specified securities in such issues?

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95. What term describes an application that includes authorization to block the application money in the bank account for subscribing to an issue?

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96. Is it true or false that derivatives are investment vehicles where individuals with similar investment objectives pool their money together?

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97. A public issue can be declared to be closed even if ______ of it is subscribed.

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98. If a merchant banker intends to implement significant changes in its control without informing SEBI about the proposed changes, will this impact the merchant banker’s certificate of registration?

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99. As per regulation 6(1) of the SEBI ICDR Regulations, what is the minimum requirement for net tangible assets that an issuer must have, calculated on a restated and consolidated basis, in each of the preceding three full years (of twelve), to be eligible to make an IPO?

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100. What is the minimum net worth required for PQR to apply to SEBI to become a merchant banker?

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