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NISM Series III-A: Securities Intermediaries Compliance (Non Fund) Mock Test (Set 3)

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NISM Series III-A: Securities Intermediaries Compliance (Non Fund) Mock Test (Set 3)

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1. The employee welfare trusts or gratuity trusts set up for the benefit of employees can’t register as alternative investment fund.

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2. ______ states that an insider shall not allow access to any UPSI relating to a company or securities listed to any person including other insiders.

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3. A applicant who is a registered Custodian under the SEBI (Custodian) Regulations,1996 cannot apply to grant of approval as designated depository participant

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4. In front running a owner or purchaser of the block trade himself may engage in the offsetting futures as a means of ______ against price fluctuations caused by the block transaction.

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5. Which of the following is NOT the activity performed by Bankers to an Issue?

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6. ______ means the minimum amount, calculated as a percentage of the market value of the securities, with respect to the last trading day’s closing price, to be maintained by the client with the broker.

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7. Each intermediary shall consider carefully the specific nature of ______ to satisfy itself that the measures taken by it are adequate and appropriate.

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8. An investment adviser shall disclose to a prospective client, all material information about itself including its disciplinary history.

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9. A KRA applicant should also have a networth of atleast ______ on a continuous basis.

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10. The periodic reports or other communications prepared for unit holders of mutual fund shall not be included in a research report.

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11. Material risks of a alternate investment fund and how they are managed which may include ________

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12. ______ facilitates the release of securities when sold, or the recording of securities when bought or obtained on allotment

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13. The ______ process shall necessarily be revisited when there are suspicions of money laundering or financing of terrorism.

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14. Any change in control of the investment adviser needs prior approval from which of the following ?

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15. The main purpose of the ______ is to impart credibility about the fulfilment of obligations in mercantile transactions.

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16. Debenture trustees shall disclose the information to the investors and the general public by issuing a press release on issues such as ________

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17. A banker to an issue may accept applications after office hours or after the date of closure of the issue or on bank holidays.

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18. If the issuer opts for the alternate method of book building, the issuer may offer the specified securities to its employees at a price not lower than by __________

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19. SEBI Act, 1992 allows SEBI to perform the function of registering and regulating the working of venture capital funds.

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20. Regulation 5 of SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 relates to –

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21. Who amongst the following collates data on subscriptions regarding primary issuances?

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22. Section 11(4) empowers SEBI to __________

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23. Section 15Z of SEBI Act provides which of the following ?

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24. Section 15 of SEBI Act levies penalty for non-disclosure of acquisition of shares and takeovers which includes persons who fail to –

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25. The ruling given by a SEBI can be challenged by petitioning the-

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26. The custodian shall have the mechanisms inspected annually by an expert and shall forward the inspection report to SEBI within ______ from the date of inspection.

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27. The depository should forward a DDP application to SEBI within ______ from the date of receipt by the depository.

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28. Category III Alternative Investment Fund may be _________

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29. _______ shall put necessary procedures in place for issue and credit of Rights Entitlements in demat mode

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30. Algo orders shall be released in breach of the ______ defined by the exchange for the security.

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31. ______ is involved in acceptance of application and application monies.

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32. A depository participant’s records of approval, notice, entry and cancellation of pledge should be maintained for __________

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33. As per SEBI (ICDR) Regulation, only audited and consolidated financial statements need to be prepared in accordance to GAAP. State whether True or False

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34. Section 15D of SEBI Act empowers SEBI to impose penalties for –

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35. Section 12 of SEBI act states that no person shall sponsor or cause to be sponsored on any ______ if the same does not obtain a certificate of registration from SEBI.

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36. Depository has the right to effect transfer of beneficial ownership while a custodian does not.

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37. ______ provides for application in writing to the SEBI proposing for settlement of proceedings initiated / to be initiated for the alleged defaults.

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38. The documents and records which need to be maintained by investment adviser shall include ________

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39. A depository participant shall ensure that it has satisfactory internal control procedures in place as well as adequate ________

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40. The role of compliance officer shall can be assigned to the principal officer or the employee of the portfolio manager.

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41. _________ offers investors the facility to lock in the rate at which they wish to buy or sell a particular currency

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42. The alternative investment fund shall provide to its investors, a description of its ______.

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43. Every underwriter shall keep and maintain ______ when the underwriter being a body corporate

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44. Every registrar to an issue and share transfer agent holding a certificate shall at all times abide by the Code of Conduct.

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45. Investment adviser doesn’t require client’s liability and borrowing details.

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46. An investment advisor shall follow Know Your Client (KYC) procedure as specified by ________

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47. The transaction involving dealing in securities by a foreign portfolio investor shall be only through _____ registered with the Board.

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48. If the person opts to hold securities with a depository, the depository on receipt of issuer’s information shall enter the name of ______ as the beneficial owner of security.

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49. All algorithmic orders are tagged with a unique identifier provided by the stock exchange in order to establish audit trail.

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50. Which authority was set up with the primary responsibility of promoting old age income security by establishing, developing, and regulating pension funds?

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