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NISM Series III-A: Securities Intermediaries Compliance (Non Fund) Mock Test (Set 2)

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NISM Series III-A: Securities Intermediaries Compliance (Non Fund) Mock Test (Set 2)

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1. Who amongst the following collates data on subscriptions regarding primary issuances?

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2.

According to the SEBI Act, in the section about registering intermediaries, it states that no one can operate venture capital funds or collective investment schemes, including mutual funds, without a registration certificate from SEBI. Is this statement true or false?

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3.

If a merchant banker involved in an issue fails to inform SEBI about any action taken by RBI due to non-compliance with RBI directives, is this considered a violation of the Code of Conduct under SEBI (Merchant Bankers) Regulations? Answer with Yes or No.

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4.

The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) possesses the powers similar to those vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure when handling certain matters. These matters include 1) summoning and ensuring the presence of any person and examining them under oath, and 2) dismissing an application for default or making a decision ex-parte. Is this statement true or false?

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5.

The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) is endowed with powers equivalent to those of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, specifically in the areas of: 1) summoning and ensuring the attendance of any person and examining them under oath, 2) demanding the discovery and production of documents, and 3) dismissing an application for default or making a decision ex-parte. Is this statement true or false?

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6. As per the SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, the advertisements or research report issued by any intermediary ____________.

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7.

As per the Code of Conduct for Prevention of Insider Trading, a Compliance Officer is responsible for certain duties under the overall supervision of the partners/proprietors.

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8.

According to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, all registered intermediaries should create policies designed to identify customer types with a higher-than-average risk of money laundering.

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9.

According to SEBI rules, is it considered fraud if a relationship manager from a stockbroking firm advises clients to buy stocks without conducting proper research, motivated by the fact that his commission is based on the brokerage generated?

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10.

Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, the record of transactions to be maintained includes cash transactions with a value exceeding ___________.

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11.

Every Banker to an Issue is required to pay a sum of Rs. __________ lakh as registration fees when obtaining the certificate from SEBI.

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12.

Is it true or false that the Central Government and SEBI have the authority to deny the grant of recognition to a stock exchange in India?

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13.

The Economic Offences Wing (EOW) is a part of _________________.

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14.

A KYC Registration Agency (KRA) seeking to surrender its registration certificate can do so by making a request for surrender to _________.

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15. ________ of the SEBI Act pertains to the penalty for the failure of an asset management company (AMC) to observe rules and regulations.

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16.

The internal stakeholders of a stockbroking firm include:

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17.

To establish a business relationship with politically exposed persons, intermediaries need to obtain approval from _________.

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18.

Every underwriter is required to pay Rs. ________ as registration fees at the time of being granted the certificate of registration.

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19.

Know Your Client (KYC) norms, Anti-Money Laundering standards, and Client Due Diligence are crucial components of _____________.

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20.

An Investment Adviser is required to evaluate the client’s risk-taking ability, which will encompass:

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21.

Is it considered a fraud under the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market – FUTP) Regulations if Mr. Suresh, a dealer with a stockbroking firm, sells a particular security at a profit for his client Mr. Mohan without seeking Mr. Mohan’s advice?

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22.

The Indian Contract Act establishes general principles related to contracts, and it is applicable to ____.

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23.

According to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, anyone committing the offense of money laundering may be subject to a fine, which can extend up to Rs. ______ in addition to imprisonment.

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24.

What is considered as unpublished price-sensitive information?

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25.

To enforce the KYC guidelines effectively, SEBI introduced the ________.

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26. _______ is the central nodal agency responsible for receiving, processing, analyzing and disseminating information regarding suspicious financial transactions in order to support anti-money laundering efforts.

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27. Indian stock exchanges frame their own Bye-Laws which are binding on all the trading members and these bye laws need to be approved by the Ministry of Finance – State whether True or False ?

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28. Fraud is when an intermediary _________ to his client, transactions entered on the clients behalf.

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29. If a stock broker violates any provisions of the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market) Regulations 2003, he/she can be penalised with _______ .

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30. A Registrar and Share Transfer Agent shall maintain books of accounts for how many years?

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31. The format of a Contract Note which a stock broker issues to his clients is specified by _________ .

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32. If a client does not co-operate with the Credit Rating agency in performing its obligations of monitoring of ratings, the agency shall ________.

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33. A Compliance Officer is responsible for ________ under the overall supervision of Board of Directors / Partners / Proprietor.

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34. Securities Contract (Regulation) Act is not applicable to _________ .

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35. Who are known as Qualified RTAs?

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36. A depository participant should make available all records to the depository for inspection matters relating to __________

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37. Intermediaries should adopt client acceptance policies and procedures which are sensitive to the risk of –

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38. QRTAs shall have Committees of the Board of Directors including __________

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39. __________ is responsible for furnishing due diligence certificate to SEBI, which shall be attached to the draft letter of offer

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40. “______ is a document that is executed by the client in favour of the stock broker and depository participant to authorise the broker to operate the clients demat account and bank account to facilitate the delivery of shares and pay-in and pay-out of funds.”

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41. NISM certification shall be mandatory for partners and representatives of applicants who offer investment advice in relation to _________

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42. ______ is the person appointed by a body corporate or any person or group of persons to perform activities such as determining the basis of allotment of securities in consultation with stock exchange.

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43. ______ facility which permits the brokers to offer clients direct access to the exchange trading system through the broker’s infrastructure without manual intervention by the broker.

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44. The SEBI (Intermediaries) Regulations, 2008, mandates the appointment of Compliance officer. State True or False?

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45. ______ stipulates enhanced due diligence by reporting entities.

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46. _____________ Alternative investment funds shall ensure that calculation of NAV is independent from the fund management function of the AIF.

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47. Partners and representatives of applicants offering investment advice shall have experience of ______ in activities relating to advice in financial products.

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48. Short selling can be done by –

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49. Any recognized entity or entities desirous of operating in IFSC as an investment advisor may form a company or LLP to provide investment advisory services.

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50. Apart from the KYC requirement stated, each intermediary may have additional documentation requirement for conducting enhanced due diligence as per their internal policies.

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