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NISM Series III-A: Securities Intermediaries Compliance Certification 'Final Test'

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NISM Series III-A: Securities Intermediaries Compliance Certification ‘Final Test’

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1. (SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015) Regulation 7A to 7K deals with ______.

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2. _______ is involved in aggregating transactions over a trading period and netting the positions to determine the liabilities of members

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3. The stock broker shall provide the facility of algorithmic trading only upon the prior permission of ________

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4. Audit Committee of a listed company or other analogous body for intermediary or fiduciary shall review compliance with the provisions of these regulations at least once in ______ .

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5. (SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015) Regulation 7H specifies the requirements with respect to informant –

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6. Depository participants are required to be registered with SEBI through respective depository concerned.

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7. Which of the following single transactions are recorded ?

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8. ____________ has access to client identification data and CDD information, transaction records and other relevant information

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9. Any registrar to an issue shall act as registrar for any issue of securities in case he or it is an associate of the body corporate issuing the securities.

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10. KRAs are also required to develop the monitoring mechanism through ______.

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11. The debenture trustee shall obtain a certificate from the ______ on utilization of funds raised through debenture issue.

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12. An applicant to be a debenture trustee should have a minimum of ______ employees who have experience in matters which are relevant to a debenture trustee.

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13. Investor shall submit more than one application form for Rights Entitlements available in a particular demat account.

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14. The client, whose securities it proposes to rate, shall agree to disclose ____________ in the offer document

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15. The Issue of capital and disclosure requirements applies to ______

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16. Intermediaries should retain _________ for the accounts of their customers in order to maintain a satisfactory audit trail

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17. Clients of special category (CSC) does not include –

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18. An intermediary should prominently display a photocopy of the certificate at all its offices including branch offices according to –

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19. Which of the following are the mandatory reporting responsibility of a Compliance Officer ?

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20. The Alternative investment fund may launch schemes subject to filing of ______ with SEBI.

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21. All of the following are the functions of SEBI under SEBI Act of 1992, EXCEPT:

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22. Chapter IV of Companies act, 2003 deals with which of the following ?

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23. Investment adviser doesn’t require client’s liability and borrowing details.

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24. According to SEBI (CAPSM) Regulations, 2007, a principal may obtain the certificate by –

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25. Section 15F of SEBI Act empowers SEBI to impose penalties for –

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26. A contract primarily must satisfy which of the following conditions?

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27. The compliance officer shall report to the intermediary or to its BoD on non-compliance under the –

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28. Preference shares gives the shareholder preferential rights towards –

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29. The change in control of a research analyst or research entity, doesn’t require prior approval from SEBI.

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30. Every stock broker shall appoint a compliance officer who shall be responsible for monitoring the compliance.

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31. The policies and procedures to combat Money Laundering includes –

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32. ______ shall inform the issuer about the transfer of securities in the name of beneficial owners at such intervals and as prescribed by bye-laws

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33. Any person aggrieved by the order passed by the adjudicating Officer under the PMLA, 2002 may prefer to appeal to the ______.

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34. Registered intermediaries should also take reasonable measures to verify the sources of funds as well as wealth of clients and beneficial owners identified as PEP.

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35. Members of the stock exchanges are required to preserve which of the following documents as per the SCRA?

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36. ______ are exchange-traded contracts to sell or buy financial instruments or physical commodities for a future delivery at an agreed price.

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37. All registered intermediaries are required to obtain senior management approval for establishing business relationships with –

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38. The alternative investment fund shall not collect funds except by way of private placement.

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39. Research Analysts are not mandatorily required to be registered with SEBI.

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40. FPIs are required to provide ______ based on the category under which it is registered.

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41. The compliance officer is appointed by ______ to comply with the SEBI Act and regulations.

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42. The post issue merchant banker shall be responsible for the post issue activities such as _________

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43.

______ defines fraud as any action, statement, failure to act, or hiding of information done to make someone else or their representative engage in securities transactions.

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44.

A foreign portfolio investor must share all details about the terms and parties involved with SEBI.

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45.

______ grants SEBI the same authority as a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure.

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46.

A depository participant is not required to keep records of instructions from clients or statements of account given to clients.

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47.

SGF and IPF can be utilized for transactions conducted on the exchange via ________.

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48.

Section 15HA of the SEBI Act gives SEBI the authority to impose penalties for –

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49. ______ of SEBI Investment advisors regulations, 2003 requires that a compliance officer is required to be appointed for a investment advisory firm.

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50.

A person can be appointed as an authorized person by more than one trading member.

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51.

A stockbroker registered with SEBI can become a depository participant if the stockbroker has a minimum net worth of ________.

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52.

A depository participant must adhere to ______ in all its activities to ensure data accuracy and as a safeguard against unauthorized transactions.

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53.

The net worth, as per capital adequacy requirements, encompasses ______ of the applicant at the time of submitting the application.

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54.

To efficiently enforce the KYC guidelines, SEBI introduced the ________.

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55.

Options provide the writer with the right, but not the obligation, to purchase or sell an asset in the future.

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56.

Rating committees of a credit rating agency shall report to _________.

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57.

The Compliance Officer can promptly and independently report any observed non-compliance to SEBI.

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58.

_______ offers services like gathering data on subscriptions to an issue and completing allotment by crediting shares to the demat accounts.

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59.

In interest rate options, _____ is purchased to secure a minimum rate of return on floating-rate investments if the benchmark rate starts to decline.

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60.

A listed company must have a whistle-blower policy and ensure that employees are aware of it. This allows employees to report instances of the unauthorized disclosure of confidential, price-sensitive information.

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61. QRTAs shall at all times, maintain adequate technical capacity to ______ load encountered during past six months

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62.

The measures to be taken by depositories when a stockbroker fails to comply with the SEBI Act include ________.

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63.

Anyone above 18 years old is eligible to become a member of the stock exchange.

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64.

Regulation 18A of SEBI (Stock Brokers) Regulations, 1992 stipulates that –

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65.

A person who is a member of the board of trustees of a mutual fund or a member of the board of directors of the asset management company of a mutual fund is regarded as a connected person.

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66.

Regulation 32 of SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 grants SEBI the authority to –

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67.

An alternative investment fund must furnish which of the following information to investors at least annually?

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68.

An associated person hired or engaged by an intermediary on or after the date specified by SEBI must obtain the certificate within ______ from the date of employment.

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69.

A futures contract is a personalized agreement between two parties where the settlement occurs on a specific date in the future at a price agreed upon today.

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70.

Any investments for which advice is given must be suitable for the risk profile of the client.

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71.

Engaging in activities that mess up the fair balance of the market or are done to benefit oneself as a middleman is considered a violation of –

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72. Any notice asking for an explanation must clearly state the wrong doing that is claimed to have occurred, pointing out the specific laws or rules that are believed to have been broken.

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73. The ______ between the insiders shall be reported by the insiders to the company within two working days.

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74. The local custodian must keep records of all transactions related to __________ to monitor limits.

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75.

After investigating and looking into a fraudulent action, SEBI may decide to –

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76.

Foreign portfolio investors are not allowed to invest in Indian depository receipts.

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77.

Can SEBI prohibit any company from issuing a prospectus, any offer document, or an advertisement soliciting money from the public for the issue of securities?

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78.

After an intermediary’s certificate is suspended, it may permit its clients or investors to withdraw their securities or funds held in its custody without any additional cost to the client.

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79. A debenture trustee may inspect ______ of the body corporate, to the extent necessary for discharging its obligations.

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80.

The policy states that the Board of Directors shall instruct the parties to sign agreements imposing confidentiality and non-disclosure obligations, requiring them to keep received information confidential.

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81.

At least two-thirds of the investable funds must be put into the shares of a venture capital undertaking or in companies that are listed or expected to be listed on a SME exchange.

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82.

A banker to an issue has the option to create its own set of rules for managing its internal operations and establishing standards for proper conduct.

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83.

Every debenture trustee is required to pay a fee of ______ at the time of receiving the certificate of registration.

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84.

The recurring registration fee for every three years for a credit rating agency is _________.

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85.

If a depository compensates for a loss, it cannot later recover the same from a participant if the loss is a result of the participant’s negligence.

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86. As per PMLA, 2002, If the Director, in the course of any inquiry, finds that a reporting entity has failed to comply with the obligations may impose a penalty _________

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87.

Which law is created to prevent harmful speculation and oversee contracts and transactions in securities?

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88.

The credit rating agency must reveal to the client the assigned rating for their securities through usual communication methods.

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89.

The ______ for a client is the overall value of its pending orders released from the stockbroker system.

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90.

All depository participants are required to offer a ______ with restricted services, as per the specified terms, to retail individual investors.

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91. ________ advises the issuer company on all matters related to the public issue, including the activities mentioned in the inter-se allocation of responsibilities

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92. A failure by the broker to issue contract notes in the form and manner specified by the stock exchange of which the broker is a member is penalized under –

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93. ______ prescribes the code of conduct for the custodian.

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94. __________ is a defined contribution retirement savings scheme regulated by PFRDA

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95. In case the investment advisory is set up as a subsidiary, the net worth requirement is to be met by the ___________

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96. Every depository shall on receipt of intimation from a participant, register the transfer of security in the name of __________

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97. A KRA surrendering its certificate to SEBI may transfer its activities to another entity holding a valid certificate of registration to carry on such activity.

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98. ______ shall provide KYC information in data and image form to the intermediary.

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99. Section 5 of FEMA act relates to __________

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100. A broker is charging an amount of brokerage in excess of that specified in the regulations. His act will be penalized under Section 15 of SEBI act for a amount –

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